Assam Finance Minister, Ms. Ajanta Neog presented the state’s ₹774.47 cr deficit annual Budget for the financial year 2024-25 on February 12, 2024. With no new taxes proposed, Neog mentioned that the total budget for the coming financial year will be ₹2.9 lakh crore.
Budget estimates for 2024-25 show receipt of ₹143,605.56 crore under consolidated fund of the state. With receipt of ₹144,550.08 crore under public account and ₹2,000 crore from contingency fund, the aggregate receipts amount to ₹290,155.65 crore. The minister mentioned that total expenditure from the consolidated fund in 2024-25 is estimated at ₹143,890.62 crore.
Important Policies/Yojana announced in Assam Budget 2024-25
Punya Tirtha Yojana: Among the budget’s key highlights was the announcement of Punya Tirtha Yojana scheme to send 25,000 pilgrims to visit the Ram Mandir at Ayodhya, with an earmarked budget of ₹25 crore.
Mukhya Mantri Nijut Moina: The government will support 10 lakh girls with financial grants as admission incentives for their higher education. Each girl student who joins class 11 will receive One-time incentives of ₹10,000 and those joining first year of graduation will be given ₹12,500. One-time incentives of Rs 15,000 will be paid to 10 lakh girl students for joining post-graduation (first year). This will be available for students taking admission in government colleges and institutions. A total outlay of ₹240 crore has been allocated for this in the budget. Aimed at eliminating child marriages, the incentive is only for unmarried girls who study in any government-run educational institution.
Mukhya Mantri Mahila Udyamita Abhiyaan: A minimum amount of Rs 47,500 will be provided to each woman member of self-help groups in rural and urban areas. This will be provided by a combination of grant, subsidy, and loan.
Mukhya Mantri Awaas Yojana (Gramin): 13,000 houses each will be allocated to eligible beneficiaries from tea garden communities and poorest of poor beneficiaries who were not included under the socio-economic caste census.
Rooftop solar: All new private and public buildings constructed in Assam will have to mandatorily install rooftop solar facility.
Farm mechanisation: The state government will distribute power tillers, tractors, threshers, and other farm equipment to support agricultural activities.
Social Equity in Government Recruitment: To bring social equity in Govt recruitment for all grade III and grade IV posts without compromising the quality of selection, from the 2024-25 fiscal, the government will provide 5% weightage in total marks to job applicants from families without any member in government service.
Safeguard for iconic sites: Budget proposals included bringing in legislation to ensure that the land surrounding “iconic and heritage locations” in Barpeta, Batadrava, Majuli, and Narayanpur is transferred only to indigenous persons or institutions. The move is to “safeguard the cultural significance” of these places.
Mukhya Mantri Sangrahalaya: The government has also decided to set up ‘Mukhya Mantri Sangrahalaya’ in Guwahati to document the legacies of all former Chief Ministers of the State.
ASHTADASH MUKUTOR UNNOYONEE MAALA:
Flagship Schemes 2024-25
Mukhya Mantri Nijut Moina (MMNM)
Mukhya Mantri Mahila Udyamita Abhiyaan
Orunodoi 2.0 – Expanding and More Inclusive
Assam Micro Finance Incentive and Relief Scheme – Category III
Chief Minister’s Atmanirbhar Assam Abhijan
One Lakh Plus Jobs
Projects for Amrit Kaal
Creating Growth Corridors
Mukhya Mantri Awaas Yojana (Gramin)
Innovative integration of wetlands with River Brahmaputra
Green Growth for Greener Assam
Welfare of Tea Tribe Community
Quest for Cultural Identity
Punya Tirth Yojana – Ayodhya Pilgrimage
Future for Children
Khel Maharan and Youth Clubs in 126 LACs
Global Investors’ Summit in November, 2024
Mukhya Mantri Sangrahalaya
Major Announcements for FY 2024-25
Reservation for Agniveers in Assam Police
Self-sufficiency in egg, milk and fish production
Promotion of small tea growers
Start-up Mission
Setting up of Training Centre at Padmashree Hemaprova Chutia’s residence
PM Vishwakarma Yojana
Farm Mechanization
Rooftop solarisation
Climate Action
Amrit-Guwahati Integrated Global City (Amrit-GiG City)
Ayushman Asom : A comprehensive healthcare initiative
Comprehensive School health Programme under Chief Minister’s Ayushman Asom
Village and Community Outreach Programme for MBBS Students in Assam under Chief Minister’s Ayushman Asom
Championing Digital Transformation & Artificial Intelligence
Gyan-Dhara – Integrating virtual reality technology with for experiential learning
Third Assam Bhawan in New Delhi
Standing with our employees – Apun Ghar, Apun Bahan
Supporting the Employees of Different Societies (Ex-Gratia)
Jeevika Sakhi Express
Monthly remuneration to honorary Gaon Pradhans in the Forest areas
Expenditures & Receipts of Govt of Assam
Expenditure (excluding debt repayment) in 2024-25 is estimated to be Rs 1,36,699 crore, a decrease of 9% from the revised estimates of 2023-24. In addition, debt of Rs 7,192 crore will be repaid by the state.
Receipts (excluding borrowings) for 2024-25 are estimated to be Rs 1,14,165 crore, a decrease of 5% as compared to the revised estimate of 2023-24.
Revenue surplus in 2024-25 is estimated to be 0.3% of GSDP (Rs 1,852 crore), as compared to a revenue deficit of 0.2% of GSDP (Rs 1,396 crore) at the revised estimate stage in 2023-24. Assam had budgeted a revenue surplus of 0.5% of GSDP in 2023-24.
Fiscal deficit for 2024-25 is targeted at 3.5% of GSDP (Rs 22,534 crore). In 2023-24, as per the revised estimates, fiscal deficit is expected to be 5.2% of GSDP.
Receipts in 2024-25
Total revenue receipts for 2024-25 are estimated to be Rs 1,11,944 crore. Of this, Rs 43,020 crore (38%) will be raised by the state through its own resources, and Rs 68,924 crore (62%) will come from the centre. Resources from the centre will be in the form of state’s share in central taxes (36% of revenue receipts) and grants (26% of revenue receipts).
Devolution: In 2024-25, state’s share in central taxes is estimated at Rs 40,000 crore.
Grants from the centre in 2024-25 are estimated at Rs 28,924 crore.
Assam’s own tax revenue
Assam’s total own tax revenue is estimated to be Rs 34,148 crore in 2024-25, an increase of 13% over the revised estimate of 2023-24. Own tax revenue as a percentage of GSDP is estimated at 5.3% in 2024-25, same as the revised estimates for 2023-24. As per the actual figures for 2022-23, own tax revenue as a percentage of GSDP was 5%.
In 2024-25, State GST is estimated to be the largest source of own tax revenue (50% share).
Assam’s expenditure on key sectors
Education: Assam has allocated 17% of its expenditure on education in 2024-25. This is higher than the average allocation for education by states in 2023-24 (14.7%).
Health: Assam has allocated 6.1% of its total expenditure towards health, which is broadly similar to the average allocation for health by states (6.2%).
Rural development: Assam has allocated 3.7% of its expenditure on rural development. This is lower than the average allocation for rural development by states (5%).
Roads and bridges: Assam has allocated 7% of its expenditure towards roads and bridges. This is higher than the average allocation towards roads and bridges by states (4.6%).
Agriculture: Assam has allocated 4.5% of its total expenditure towards agriculture. This is lower than the average expenditure on agriculture by states (5.9%).
Irrigation: Assam has allocated 2.8% of its total expenditure towards irrigation, which is lower than the average allocation by states (3.4%).
Deficits, Debt, and FRBM Targets for 2024-25
The Assam Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2005 provides annual targets to progressively reduce the outstanding debt, revenue deficit and fiscal deficit of the state government.
Revenue balance: It is the difference of revenue expenditure and revenue receipts. A revenue deficit implies that the government needs to borrow to finance those expenses which do not increase its assets or reduces its liabilities. The budget estimates a revenue surplus of Rs 1,852 crore (or 0.3% of the GSDP) in 2024-25.
Fiscal deficit: It is the excess of total expenditure over total receipts. This gap is filled by borrowings by the government and leads to an increase in total liabilities. In 2024-25, the fiscal deficit is estimated to be 3.5% of GSDP. For 2024-25, the central government has permitted fiscal deficit of up to 3.5% of GSDP to states, of which 0.5% of GSDP will be available upon carrying out certain power sector reforms. As per the revised estimates, in 2023-24, the fiscal deficit of the state is expected to be 5.2% of GSDP. This is higher than the budget estimate of 3.7% of GSDP. Fiscal deficit is projected to be lowered to 1.4% of GSDP by 2029-30.
Outstanding debt: Outstanding debt is the accumulation of total borrowings at the end of a financial year. At the end of 2024-25, the outstanding debt is estimated to be 25.2% of GSDP, higher than the budget estimate for 2023-24 (24.4% of GSDP).
Outstanding Government Guarantees: Outstanding debt of states do not include a few other liabilities that are contingent in nature, which states may have to honour in certain cases. State governments guarantee the borrowings of State Public Sector Enterprises (SPSEs) from financial institutions. As of March 31, 2023, the state’s outstanding guarantee is estimated to be Rs 1,167 crore, which is 0.2% of Assam’s GSDP in 2022-23.
GREEN BUDGETING
Green Budgeting is a Public Finance Management (PFM) tool to enable evidence and output based budgeting towards achieving climate and sustainability targets allowing for effi cient resource allocation towards Climate Change mitigation, adaptation, and environment sustainability.
A Green Budget contributes to achieving various Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), such as SDG 13 (Climate Action), SDG 11 (Sustainable Cities and Communities), SDG 7 (Aff ordable and Clean Energy), and other SDGs, fostering a more sustainable and resilient future in line with the United Nations’ Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) and India’s Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) under the Paris Agreement and other national and state commitments. Green Budget share is 10.02% of total budget of 18 key departments amounting to Rs. 4636 Crore in FY 2024-25.
Highlights of Assam Economy 2024
The Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) of Assam for 2024-25 (at current prices) is projected to be Rs. 6,43,089 crore, amounting to growth of 13% over 2023-24.
In 2022-23, Assam’s GSDP (at constant prices) is estimated to grow by 10.2% over the previous year. In comparison, India’s GDP is estimated to grow by 7.2% in 2022-23.
Sectors contribution: In 2022-23, agriculture, manufacturing, and services sectors are estimated to contribute 35%, 19%, and 45% of Assam’s economy, respectively (at current prices).
Per capita GSDP: In 2022-23, Assam’s per capita GSDP (at current prices) is estimated to be Rs 1,36,819, an increase of 17% over 2021-22. In 2022-23, India’s per capita GDP is estimated to increase by 15% over 2021-22 to Rs 1,96,983.
Q45. You are riding your bike in an isolated stretch of the highway, about 100 m behind ascooterist. Suddenly a car overtakes you, knocks down the scooterist (unfortunately) and tries to flee from the scene. What will you do?
(A) Run away from the scene as quickly as possible to avoid any involvement with the police
(B) Pursue the culprit vehicle at breakneck speed with the intention of thrashing the erring driver
(C) Attend the victim of the accident and call for 108 ambulance service, if required
(D) Wait for other people to arrive at the spot
Q46. You ordered food for 1,000 on a food app and paid online. The delivery boy, after delivering the food packet, suggested that from the next time onward you should order food on cash on delivery mode. Then he would deliver the food at half the actual price. You understand that this is a scam but a win-Win arrangement foryou and the delivery boy at’ the expense of the food delivery app. You will
(A) take advantage Of the situation and go by the suggestion or the food delivery boy
(B) just ignore the suggestion and forget the
(C) highlight the incident in social media platforms tagging the CEO of the food delivery app
(D) give a moral lecture to the delivery boy and ask him not get involved in such scams
Q47. You experienced racial abuse while visiting a foreign country. What will you do?
(A) Move away from the scene
(B) Quarrel with the abuser
(C) Try to become friendly with the abuser
(D) Calmly tell the abuser that what he has done is wrong and that you are going to report the matter to the authority.
Q48. Assam is plagued by recurrent and devastating floods and erosion every year. The large number of rivers and their tributaries carry a huge volume Of water, silt and other debris including carcasses of dead animals. Apart from the misery paused by loss of hearth and homes, water-borne diseases play havoc with their lives. Successive governments have succeeded to a certain extent in solving the problem by building embankments, spurs and other innovative ideas, etc. Many people have put forward a variety of solutions including dredging of the rivers, doing away with all embankments and allowing the river waters to flow freely, raising the height of the homes, shifting people from riverine areas and settling them elsewhere. You would
(A) build dams to reduce the flow of water
(B) do away with all embankments
(C) solve the problem using innovative ideas
(D) shift people from riverine areas
Q49. You and your friend have gone shopping and have purchased jewellery amounting to rupees five lakh from a shop. You request the store manager to give you a rebate considering the fact that you have purchased high value goods at a considerable cost. The store manager offers a discount of one percent, but your friend is outraged by the offer and threatens to leave without buying anything. The store manager is worried and asks her how much rebate she expects and she demands a rebate of at least 10%. The manager says he has to consult his boss. The manager comes back in a few minutes and says he can give the rebate of 10% as desired but in that case would not provide an invoice to the customer. If you were the customer, what would you do?
(A) Accept the manager’s original offer of one percent rebate
(B)’ Advise your friend to pay the bill and not ask for a rebate
(C) Accept the manager’s offer of not providing an invoice
(D) Accept the manager’s offer and then report the matter to the authorities
Q58. According to Oxford Dictionary, ‘restitution’ means ‘the restoration of something lost or stolen to its proper owner; recompense for injury or loss’. Which of the following situations would be the nearest example of restitution?
(A) Ravi returned the mobile handset he purchased a week ago as the same heated up too high when viewing You?ube videos and claimed replacement with compensation.
(B) David returned the lawn mower he borrowed from Timothy, with a broken blade that cracked upon hitting a rock when David was clearing his yard, and offered to pay for the repair and a new set of blades.
(C) Amelia complained to her neighbour of her place being broken in and burgled, and demanded compensation as she had requested the neighbour to keep an eye on her place over the weekend when she is gone off to the beach.
(D) Satyam returned Gurpreet’s bike that he had borrowed, offered to pay for the quantity of fuel consumed, and small gift as a token of gratitude.
Q67. Identify the incorrect statement/ statements from the following
(i) The word ’emoji’ has its roots in the English word ’emotion’.
(ii) The word ’emoji’ is a blend of two Japanese words for picture and letter.
(iii) Shigetaka Kurita is considered to be the founding father of today’s emojis.
(iv) Steve Wozniak, one of the founders of Apple, is considered to be the founding father of today’s emojis.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (i) and (iv)
(C) Only (iii)
(D) Only (ii) and (iv)
Q68. Identify the incorrect statement.
(A) Haptic communication is a form of nonverbal communication.
(B) A handshake is an example of haptics.
(C) Haptic communication is via the sense of touch.
(D) The origin of the word ‘haptic’ is Spanish.
Q69. The capacity to sense other people’s emotion, together with the capacity to imagine what someone else might be feeling, is called
(A) sympathy
(B) understanding
(C) empathy
(D) caring
Q70. Johari Window is
(A) one of the earliest versions of MS Windows
(B) the latest version of MS Windows
(C) the beta version of MS Windows
(D) a framework for understanding conscious and unconscious bias that can help enhance self-awareness and our perceptions on others
Q71. Grapevine communication is
(A) very similar to fiber optics communication
(B) the most sophisticated military communication system, which was recently acquired by India
(C) a method of spreading information, half-truths, gossips, etc., by informal conversation
(D) a process used to brew high quality red wines
Q73. You have shown appreciation for an undesirable gift. This is an example of
(A) white lie
(B) compulsive lie
(C) deceptive lie
(D) black lie
Q74. In social science, oculesics refers to
(A) the study of eye-related nonverbal communication
(B) the study of hand-related nonverbal communication
(C) the study of foot-related nonverbal communication
(D) the study of nose-related nonverbal communication
Q75. MUM effect means
(A) a tendency to remain silent in company of people
(B) a reluctance to reveal negative information
(C) a fear of public speaking
(D) a tendency to prevent other people from speaking
Q76. Identify the correct statement/ statements from -the following
(i) Disfluencies are interruptions in the smooth flow Of speech.
(ii) Prolonged sound like ‘Soooooo cute’ is an example of disfluencies.
(iii) Pausing silently during a speech is an example of disfluencies.
(iv) Repeating words during a speech is an example of disfluencies.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (i) and (ii)
(C) Only (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Q77. Which is the agency of the Union Government of India that disseminates information regarding the government policies and projects to the media in India? [ NOT a CSAT Qs ]
Q26. In the figure below, one space is vacant, which has been indicated as ? :
Download PDF to see figure
Q27. Histogram below shows the production per year in thousand units from 2010 to 2020 for a certain company :
Download PDF to see figure
A person studied the histogram and concluded the following .
(i) The company achieved the highest growth in production per year in 2016 for the decade 2011-2020.
(ii) The production per year shows a negative growth in the year 2019 for the decade 2011-2020.
Now, choose the correct one from the following alternatives.
(A) Both conclusions (i) and (ii) are correct
(B) Only conclusion (i) is correct
(C) Only conclusion (ii) is correct
(D) Neither conclusion (i) nor conclusion (ii) is correct
Q28. pie diagram below shows the average monthly expenditure of a family. The monthly income of the family is Rs. 50,000.
Consider the following statements
(i) The average monthly expenditure of the family for conveyance is about 10,000.
(ii) The average monthly expenditure of the family for food is about 17,500.
Now, choose the correct one from the following alternatives.
(A) Both conclusions (i) and (ii) are correct
(B) Only conclusion (i) is correct
(C) Only conclusion (ii) is correct
(D) Neither conclusion (i) nor conclusion (ii) is correct
Q29. graphs below show the production and sales figures of a company for the decade 2011-2020. The company could sell 2 80% Of its products every year during the decade:
Download PDF to see figure
One may conclude the following :
(i) The company effected a price drop in the year 2015.
(ii) Sales-wise, the worst performing year for the company was 2020.
Now, choose the correct one from the following alternatives.
(A) Both conclusions (i) and (ii) are correct
(B) Only conclusion (i) is correct
(C) Only conclusion (ii) is correct
(D) Neither conclusion (i) nor conclusion (ii) is correct
Q35. Pick up the most appropriate word to fill in the blank from the given alternatives :
float, hook, line, bait, net,
(A) saw
(B) spade
(C) axe
(D) pond
Q36. Pick up the most appropriate word to fill in the blank from the given alternatives .
Bengal, Indo-Chinese, South China, Amur,
(A) Sumatran
(B) Caspian
(C) Bali
(D) Javan
Q37. In the given list below, identify the word which is different from the rest :
Q38. If Cycle pairs with Velodrome, then Boxing will pair with
(A) Arena
(B) Ring
(C) Court
(D) Pitch
Q50. How many triangles can be formed within a regular octagon, where vertices of the octagon are vertices of the triangles, and each triangle can have only one side common with that of the octagon, but none of the sides passes through the centre of the octagon?
(A) 32
(B) 16
(C) 24
(D) 64
Q51. If the square represents traders, circle represents football lovers and triangle represents women who love football, then which slice represents women who love football, but are not traders?
Download PDF to see figure
(A) C
(B) E
(C) D
(D) There is no such slice
Q52. If Bus is related to Car, then in the same way, River would be related to
(A) Stream
(B) Pond
(C) Lake
(D) Swimming pool
Q61. A and B start walking in opposite directions. A covers 3 km and B covers 4 km. Then A turns right and walks 4 km while B turns left and walks 3 km. How far is each from the starting point?
(A) 5 km
(B) 4 km
(C) 10 km
(D) 8 km
Q62. In a row of 40 students, Saurav is 24th from the left end and Sachin is *6th from the right end. How many students are there between Saurav and Sachin?
Q18. Consider the following sequence of combinations of three alphabets
LPP, MOO, NNN, OMM
The combination of three alphabets that will come after OMM is
(A) PPP
(B) PXX
(C) PLL
(D) PQQ
Q19. A family consists of six members A, B, C, D, E and F. There are two married couples in the family. Now, consider the following statements in respect of the family
F is the daughter of E, who is a policewoman by profession.
B is the wife of A.
D is the daughter of A.
Then which of the following statements is/ are correct?
(i) C is the husband of E.
(ii) C is the son of A.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(A) Only (i)
(B) only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (ii)
(D) Neither (i) nor (ii)
Q20. If Angkor Wat pairs with Cambodia, then Kamakhya will pair with
(A) Assam
(B) Nilachal
(C) India
(D) Kamrup
Q21. If Red pairs with Yellow, then Green will pair with
(A) Violet
(B) Blue
(C) Indigo
(D) Orange
Q22. If ‘tiger’ is coded as ‘5regit’, then ‘deer’ will be coded as
(A) 4reed
(B) 5reed
(C) 4regit
(D) 1 regit
Q23. If Rangia is coded as Sbohjb, then Tihu will be coded as
(A) Uijv
(B) UVIJ
(C) Uivj
(D) Ujiv
Q24. From the given, set of numbers below, identify the one which is different from the rest : 7, 13, 17, 19, 106
(A) 17
(B) 19
(C) 106
(D) All are same in type
Q32. Study the following information.
(i) A, B, C, D, E and F are six graduate students studying in B. Barua College, Guwahati. They have offered major in six different subjects, viz., Physics, Chemistry, Z0010U, Botany, Ge010U and Political Science.
(ii) Two of them belong to Nagaon, two belong to Dibrugarh and the remaining two are local.
(iii) A and F belong to Nagaon, B belongs to Dibrugarh and C is local.
(iv) D is local and has major in Zoology.
(v) A has major in Chemistry while E’s major subject is Geology.
(vi) One student belonging to Nagaon is an Arts student.
(vii) Students hailing from Dibrugarh have not offered major in Physics.
Now, answer the following question:
Which of the following combinations of students and major subjects is not correct?
(A) A-Chemistry
(B) C-Physics
(C) F-Political Science
(D) B – Geology
Q33. With reference to the Question No. 32 above, what are the major subjects of the two local students?
(A) Physics and Chemistry
(B) Physics and Zoology
(C) Zoology and Botany
(D) Chemistry and Geology
Q34. If the code for CAT is 05-03-22, then the code for DOG will be
(A) 07-12-22
(B) 06-17-09
(C) 11-07-22
(D) 06-11-09
Q41. Nowadays, most of the offices have gone paperless to the extent possible because
(i) a paperless office is environment friendly
(ii) paper is very costly nowadays Choose the correct alternative.
(A) Only (i) is correct
(B) Only (ii) is correct
(C) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
(D) Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct
Q42. The government is encouraging the use of electric vehicles because
(i) fossil fuel will not last forever
(ii) electric vehicles do not ,cause pollution
Choose the correct alternative.
(A) Only (i) is correct
(B) Only (ii) is correct
(C) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
(D) Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct
Q43. Dengue is spreading alarmingly in certain pockets of the city. Therefore
(i)3 fumigation should be carried out in war footing in the affected areas
(ii) residents should be advised to avoid non-vegetarian foods
Choose the correct alternative.
(A) Only (i) is correct
(B) Only (ii) is correct
(C) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
(D) Neither (i) nor (ii) is Correct
Q44. Arrange the following rulers in a meaningful order . [ NOT a CSAT Qs ]
1.Queen Victoria
SwargadeoRudraSingha
ChhatrapatiShivajiMaharaj
Emperor Bahadur Shah Zafar
Czar Nicholas Il
Choose the correct answer.
(A) 3, 2, 4, 1, 5
(B) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(C) 3, 2, 5, 1, 4
(D) 3, 5, 1, 4, 2
Q53. Consider the following sequence of pairs of alphabets .
AK, BL, DIV, GQ
The pair of alphabets that will come after GQ is
(A) CM
(B) HJ
(C) KL
(D) KU
Q55. The special edition paperback version of Roget’s Thesaurus has 656 printed pages, and all are numbered except the covers. What would be the total number of digits used for page numbering this book?
(A) 1760
(B) 1680
(C) 1860
(D) 1670
Q56. The town clock of Pradoga takes 6 seconds to strike six at 6 0’clock. How much time would it take to strike eleven at 11 0’clock?
(A) 11 seconds
(B) 10 seconds
(C) 14 seconds
(D) 12 seconds
Q79. Consider the following information regarding the performance of a class of100 students in four different tests:
Tests Average Marks Range of Marks
I 60 30-90
II 60 45-75
III 70 20-100
IV 80 0-100
If a student scores 74 marks in each of the four tests, in which one of the following tests is his/her performance the best comparatively?
Q17. By selling an article at ₹ 270, a man loses 10%. If he would sell it at ₹ 360, his gain percentage will be
(B) 10
(C) 15
(D) 20
Q25. A school offers Science and Arts courses. 75% of the final year students are in the Science stream. In the final examination, 25% of the Science students and 24 9% of the Arts students of the school obtained first class. The above data have been represented in the figures. In the figures, the upper row is for Science while the lower row is for Arts. The shaded portion represents the % of students securing first class while the bigger rectangle represents the % of Science or Arts students as the case may be :
Choose the correct one from the following alternatives.
(A) Figure (i) depicts the data most accurately
(B) Figure (ii) depicts the data most accurately
(C) Figure (iii) depicts the data most accurately
(D) Figure (iv) depicts the data most accurately
Q39. A man drives a car from A to B with an average speed of 40 kmph and then returns to A by the same route with an average speed of 60 kmph. The average speed of the car for the entire up and down journey in kmph is
(A) 45
(B) 48
(C) 50
(D) 55
Q40. A man walks 6 km to North, then turns right through 900 and walks 8 km. Then he turns South and walks 3 km. Again, he turns right through 900 and walks 4 km and stops. How far is he now from his starting point?
(A) 3 km
(B) 4 km
(C) 5 km
(D) 6 km
Q54. In a gift bag, a birthday girl found toffees and lollipops, where toffees were three times in number as compared to lollipops. Which of the following cannot be a total count of goodies in her gift bag?
(A) 44
(B) 48
(C) 42
(D) 52
Q59. In the following two arithmetic operations, the numbers are correct, but the operators are all mixed up, except the ‘=’ sign
(i) 9+5 = 20x 25
(ii) 76 / 60 = 64 – 4
Under this new usage of operators, which of the following operations is valid?
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 4
Q63. A garden is 24 m long and 14 m wide. There is a path of 1 m wide outside the garden along its sides. If the path is to be constructed with square marble tiles 10 cm x 10 cm, then find the number of tiles required to cover the path.
(A) 2000
(B) 4000
(C) 8000
(D) None of the above
Q64. Two cars are moving in the same direction with a speed of 45 kmph and a distance of 10 km separates them. If a car coming from the opposite direction meets these two cars at an interval of 6 minutes, its speed would be
(A) 45 kmph
(B) 55 kmph
(C) 65 kmph
(D) 75 kmph
Q65. The speed of a boat in still water is 10 m/ s and the speed of the stream is 6 m/ s. If the boat is moving upstream and again downstream, what is the ratio of the time taken to cover a particular stretch of distance in each direction?
(A) 2 : 1
(B) 3 : 1
(C) 4 : 1
(D) 6 : 1
Q66. The average weight of a class of 15 boys and 10 girls is 384 kg. If the average weight of the boys is 40 kg, then what is the average weight of the girls?
Read the following passage carefully and answer Question Nos. 1 and 2
The chief gateways to the world of international trade are the ports and harbours. Cargoes and travellers pass from one part of the world to another through these ports. The ports provide facilities for docking, loading, unloading and storage facilities for cargo, In order to provide these facilities, the port authorities make arrangements for maintaining navigable channels, arranging tugs and barges, and providing labour and managerial services. The importance of a port is judged by the type of cargo and the number of ships handled. The quantity of cargo handled by a port is an indicator of the level of development of its hinterland. Generally ports are classified according to the types of traffic and the cargo which they handle, like industrial, commercial and comprehensive ports. Most of the world’s great ports are classified as comprehensive ports. Ports are classified on the basis of their location as inland ports and out ports. They are also classified on the basis of specialized functions like oil ports, ports of call, packet stations or ferry ports, entre ports and naval ports.
Q1. The importance of a port is judged by
(A) type of ships handled and size of cargo
(B) quality of cargo and size of ships handled
(C) type of cargo and number of ships handled
(D) quantity of cargo and size of ships handled
Q2. Most of the world’s great ports are classified as
(A) naval ports
(B) commercial ports
(C) industrial ports
(D) comprehensive ports
Read the following passage carefully and answer Question Nos. 3 and 4
The Wodehouses, like others, were in constant contact with the British Vice-Consul in Boulogne and expected to be alerted by him if it became no longer safe to remain in residence. The warning was never given. As with the others who had continued to live in the area, it seemed that the Wodehouses did not really appreciate the extent of the danger they were in by staying on. On 21st May, the Wodehouses set out in a car chock full of possessions from their house in Le Touquet. After covering only a short distance, the car broke down, having been repaired poorly after a crash some weeks ago. They had not noticed problems with the car as they had been using their other car since then. They set out again, this time in a convoy with their neighbours, who were travelling in a van and a car. The van broke down. By the time it was repaired it, was evening and the party decided to return to Le Touquet. That night the Germans captured the town. Wodehouse was required to report to the German authorities at the town of Paris Plage each day while his wife was required to report once a week. The Germans commandeered the Wodehouse bathroom. This fact and Wodehouse’s comments on it were to spawn various stories proving his support and sympathies for the Germans. The Germans were unwelcome not only for dropping into his house for a bath but also for raiding his larder, taking away their car, bicycles, radio and tobacco.
Q3. Select the correct statement.
(A) The car and the van of the Wodehouses broke down on their way back from Le Touquet.
(B) The car and the van of the Wodehouses broke down on their way from Le Touquet.
(C) The car of the Wodehouses and the van of their neighbours broke down on their way back from Le Touquet.
(D) The van of the neighbours of the Wodehouses broke down on their way from Le Touquet.
Q4. Which of the following is correct about the Germans?
(A) They occupied the house of the Wodehouses, used their bath and raided their larder,
(B) They used their bath, raided their larder and took away their car, bicycle, radio and tobacco,
(C) They used their bath, raided their larder and took away their car, bicycles, radio and tobacco.
(D) They used their bath, raided their larder and took away their cars, bicycles, radio and tobacco.
Read the following passage carefully and answer Question Nos. 5 and 6
Hobbies help us grow as a person. The best way to have a hobby is to try something new. All of us are unique and this is the reason why our hobbies and interests are different. Once we find an activity we are passionate about we can explore that activity. When you get hooked, you will realize that your hobby has become an integral part of your life. Having a hobby that we enjoy brings us joy and refreshes us. Hobbies help us to manage our leisure and unplanned time more productively. It also affords you the opportunity to learn new skills in your work. The journey of experiencing your hobby is rewarding in itself. With the exposure to different types of activities these days, it does not matter which activity you choose-pursuing a craft, sports, puzzles or skill development-your hobby should be your diversion and passion.
Q5. On the basis of you+ -reading of the above passage, the option that is clearly the synonym of ‘hooked’ is
(A) opposed
(B) captivated
(C) indifferent
(D) willing
Q6. No matter what activity you are pursuing your hobby should be
(A) useful to you
(B) a skill that helps you
(C) a diversion and a passion
(D) None of the above
Read the following passage carefully and answer Question Nos. 7 and 8
Mountains have always been held in great awe by mankind. They have been a challenge to humans. Those brave among us have always wanted to conquer them. You see, the more incredible the mountains, the greater the thrill-a challenge to the bravery of the human race. Climbing mountains is an experience that is hard to put into words. Mountain climbing is undoubtedly one of the most popular adventure sports, along with being challenging and risky for the climber. Without any perceived risk there cannot be a feeling that any significant challenge has been surmounted. The enthusiasts must develop in themselves the spirit of adventure, willingness to undertake hardships and risks, extraordinary power of perseverance, endurance and keenness of purpose before climbing a mountain. Up there where the intention is to embrace nature’s wonder, one realizes that it cannot be done without facing its formidable glory. A true mountaineer may challenge the mountain, yet is always respectful to the powerful forces of nature.
Q7. Why does the writer say that mountains inspire awe in humans?
(A) They present us with opportunities for exciting sports.
(B) They evoke a wish in us to conquer them.
(C) They inspire in us deeds of valour.
(D) They represent a challenge to us.
Q8. Select the reason the mountaineer is respectful to the forces of nature when up in the mountains.
(A) Survival
(B) Fear (C) Tradition
(D) Power
Read the following passage carefully and answer Question Nos. 9 and 10
Evolution has designed the vultures to be the ultimate scavengers. Enormous wingspans allow them to circle in the air for hours. Their beaks, while rather horrifying, are weak by bird standards, made to scoop and eat flesh. However unappealing they may seem, vultures serve an important role in the ecological cycle, processing the dead bodies of animals. Only 20 years ago, India had plenty of vultures-flocks so enormous they darkened the skies. But by 1999, their numbers had dropped due to a mysterious kidney ailment. By 2008, 99.9% of India’s vultures were gone. It was finally discovered that they had been killed by a drug called Diclofenac. Indians revere their cows and when a cow shows signs of pain, they treat it with the pain reliever Diclofenac. After the animal died, the vultures would eat the carcass, though the vultures boast of one of the world’s most efficient digestive systems they cannot digest Diclofenac. Sometimes vultures feed on carcasses laced with poison intended to kill jackals and other predatory carnivores. India banned the use of Diclofenac for veterinary use in 2006, but it is still widely used. The near extinction of vultures has caused diseases in the country as rats and dogs moved in to take their place-spreading pathogens that would have otherwise been destroyed by the vultures.
Q9. What does the phrase ‘moved in to take their place’ mean?
(A) Contributed to the task
(B) Helped them
(C) Replaced them
(D) Removed them
Q10. On the basis of the above passage, which of the following can be inferred as the major cause of the death of vultures?
(A) They feed on carcasses laced with poison intended to kill them.
(B) They feed on carcasses laced with poison intended to kill jackals and other predators.
(C) They eat carcasses laced with Diclofenac.
(D) None of the above
Read the following passage carefully and answer Question Nos. 11 and 12
The movement for the right to information is one of the few recent examples of a movement that did succeed in getting the state to accept its major demands. The movement started in 1990 when a mass-based organization called Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan in Rajasthan took the initiative in demanding records of famine relief work and accounts of labourers. In 2004, the RTI Bill was tabled and received presidential assent in June 2005. The demand was raised in Bhim Tehsil, a very remote and backward region. The villagers asserted their right by asking for copies of bills and vouchers and names of persons on muster rolls who had been paid wages. “In ‘1996, the MKSS formed the National Council for People’s Right to Information. Prior to that, the Consumer Education and Research Centre, the Press Council of India and the Shourie Committee had proposed a draft RTI law. In 2002, a weak Freedom of Information Act was legislated but never came into force.
Q11. RTI means
(A) Right to Investigation
(B) Right to Intimation
(C) Right to Interference
(D) Right to Information
Q12. The RTI Bill was tabled in
(A) 1996
(B) 2002
(C) 2004
(D) 2005
Read the following passage carefully and answer Question Nos. 13 and 14
The Antarctica continental region extends over 14 million square kilometres and comprises 26% of the world’s wilderness area, representing 90% of all the territorial ice and 70% of planetary freshwater. The Antarctica also extends to a further 36 million square kilometres of ocean. It has limited terrestrial life and a highly productive marine ecosystem, comprising of a few plants, marine mammals, fish and hordes of birds as well as krill which is central to marine food chain and upon which other animals are dependent. The Antarctica plays an important role in maintaining climatic equilibrium and deep ice cores provide an important source of information about greenhouse gas concentration and atmospheric temperatures of hundreds and thousands of years ago. Who owns this coldest, farthest and windiest continent on the globe? There are two claims about it. Some countries like UK, Argentina, Chile, Norway, France and New Zealand have made legal claims to sovereign rights over it. Most other states have taken the opposite view that it is part of the global commons and not subject to the executive jurisdiction of any state. The Arctic and Antarctic polar regions are subjected to special regional rules of environment protection.
Q13. The above passage tells us that the highly productive marine ecosystem comprises of
(A) a few plants, marine animals, fish and hordes of birds
(B) a few plants, marine mammals, fish and hordes of birds
(C) plants, marine mammals, hordes of fish and birds
(D) plants, mammals, fish and hordes of birds
Q14. The Arctic polar region is owned by
(A) Argentina, China, Norway, France, New Zealand and UK
(B) UK, Argentina, Chile, Norway, Australia, France and Greenland
(C) Chile, Argentina, China, Norway, France and New Zealand
(D) None of the above
Read the following passage carefully and answer Question Nos. 15 and 16
Janardhan works in a call centre. He leaves late in the evening for work, becomes John when he enters the office, acquires a new accent and speaks a different language to communicate with his clients, who are living thousands of miles away. He works all night which is actually daytime for his overseas customers. Janardhan is rendering service to somebody, who in all probability, he is never likely to meet physically. Ramdhari has gone shopping to buy a birthday gift for his nine-year-old daughter. He has promised her a small cycle and decided to search the market for something he can afford as well as of reasonable quality. He finally buys a cycle, which is actually manufactured in China but is being marketed in India. It meets his requirements of quality and affordability. Last year he had, on his daughter’s insistence, bought her a Barbie doll, which was originally manufactured in the US and was being sold in India. Sarika is a first generation learner who has done remarkably well throughout her school and college life by working very hard. She now has an opportunity to take up a job and begin an independent career which the women in her family had never dreamt of earlier. While some of her relatives are opposed to her decision, she goes ahead because of the new opportunities that have been made available to her generation.
Q15. The examples in the passage illustrate
(A) globalization of services
(B) conflict of values
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Q16. Sarika’s decision reflects a conflict of values originating from
(A) a new opportunity that was available to the women in her family
(B) an unacceptable new opportunity that was available to the women in her family
(C) a new opportunity that was not available to the women in her family
(D) None of the above
Q30. Study the passage below:
The introduction of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) is a very significant step in the field of indirect tax reforms in India. By amalgamating a large number of Central and State taxes into a single tax, GST will mitigate ill effects of cascading or double taxation in a major way and pave the way for a common national market. From the consumers point of view, the biggest advantage would be in terms of reduction in the overall tax burden on goods, which is currently estimated to be around 25%-30%. It would also imply that the actual burden of indirect taxes on goods and services would be much more transparent to the consumer. Introduction of GST would also make Indian products competitive in the domestic and international markets owing to the full neutralization of input taxes across the value chain of production and distribution. Studies show that this would have impact on economic growth. Last but not the least, this tax, because of its transparent and self-policing character, would be easier to administer. It would also encourage a shift from the informal to formal economy.
On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made.
(i) Introduction of GST is a paradigm shift from the earlier tax regime.
(ii) GST subsumed all indirect taxes in India.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(A) Assumption (i) only
(B) Assumption (ii) only
(C) Both assumptions (i) and (ii)
(D) Neither assumption (i) nor assumption (ii)
Q31. Study the passage below:
The new education policy must provide to all students, irrespective of their place of residence, a quality education system, with particular focus on historically marginalized, disadvantaged, and underrepresented groups. Education is a great leveler and is the best tool for achieving economic and social mobility, inclusion, and equality. Initiatives must be in place to ensure that all students from such groups, despite inherent obstacles, are provided various targeted opportunities to enter and excel in the educational system.
On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made :
(i) One of the cornerstones of the new education policy is inclusion.
(ii) The new education policy advocates quality education.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(A) Assumption (i) only
(B) Assumption (ii) only
(C) Both assumptions (i) and (ii)
(D) Neither assumption (i) nor assumption (ii)
Q57. Feynman made sure that the radiation exposure of the inner chamber is within tolerance limits. Opening the heavy door to the scrubbing chamber, he walked in and donned a sterile gown after the door closed behind him. Feynman sat on the scrubbing bench in the sealed chamber while the air would be cleaned by the scrubber unit. After six minutes, an inner door opened. As he walked into the inner chamber and touched the object, Feynman felt a wave of excitement washing over him. On the workbench lies the object which has the capacity of replicating and unleashing power comparable to that of the sun, albeit on a much smaller scale.
Based on the paragraph above, identify which of the following statements is best acceptable.
(A) To enter the inner chamber, one has to wait for not less than six minutes in the scrubbing chamber.
(B) The atom bomb was created by a team of which Feynman was a member.
(C) Feynman was all alone in the inner chamber when he touched the object.
(D) The Laser (gun) was designed and developed in a laboratory where Feynman worked.
Q1. Union Ayush Minister Shri Sarbananda Sonowal laid Foundation Stone of the Regional Research Institute For Homoeopathy at
Shillong
Guwahati
Agartala
Gangtok
Guwahati
Union Ayush Minister Shri Sarbananda Sonowal laid the foundation stone of the permanent campus of the Regional Research Institute for Homoeopathy and Integrated Ayush Wellness Centre at Azara, Guwahati.
This Institute was established as a Clinical Research Unit of Homeopathy in 1984 in the rented building at Odalbakra, Guwahati. Presently it is situated at Bhetapara, Guwahati in the old building of Central Ayurveda Research Institute.
Q2. Which among the following cities has been declared as the cleanest city in India in Swachh Survekshan 2023?
Indore and Surat
Bhopal and Ambikapur
Nagpur and Mysore
Navi Mumbai and Chandrapur
Indore and Surat
Surat in Gujarat and Indore in Madhya Pradesh were jointly declared cleanest cities of the country at the annual clean city awards 2023. This was for the seventh year in a row that Indore has been ranked as the cleanest city in India.
Top Performers in Other Categories
Cities with Population under 1 Lakh: Sasvad, Patan, and Lonavala claimed the top three spots.
Cleanest Cantonment Board: Mhow Cantonment Board in Madhya Pradesh emerged as the top performer.
Cleanest Ganga Towns: Varanasi and Prayagraj received recognition as the best and cleanest Ganga towns.
Best Performing States: Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, and Chhattisgarh secured the top three awards for their outstanding performance.
Safaimitra Surakshit Sheher: Chandigarh received the award for the Best Safaimitra Surakshit Sheher.
Q3. Who among the following has been elected as the 2nd time Prime Minister of Bhutan?
Tshering Tobgay
William Lai
Chogyal Dago Rigdzin
Lotay Tshering
Tshering Tobgay
Q4. Which bank has launched Green Rupee Term Deposit recently?
Punjab National Bank (PNB)
ICICI Bank
State Bank of India (SBI)
Axis Bank
State Bank of India (SBI)
The State Bank of India (SBI)has launched SBI Green Rupee Term Deposit in an effort to raise cash for funding green activities and projects, as well as to expand the country’s green finance ecosystem.
Q5. Who among the following has been appointed as the Executive Director of Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)?
Govindayapalli Ram Mohan Rao
Madhabi Puri Buch
B N Sahoo
Arvind Singh
Govindayapalli Ram Mohan Rao
Q6. Which state transport corporation has recently launched India’s first 100% electric mobility electric bike (e-bike) taxi service, Baayu?
Uttar Pradesh
Bihar
[/bg_collapse]Assam
Odisha
Assam
The government of Assam has launched ‘Baayu’, an app-based electric bike taxi service by the Assam State Transport Corporation (ASTC).
It is India’s first decentralized, app-based 100% electric bike taxi service that was flagged off by Assam Transport Minister Parimal Suklabaidya in Guwahati.
Q7. India’s first woman to receive the Arjuna Award for Equestrian Sports?
Hussain Khan
Indrajit Lamba
Darya Singh
Divyakriti Singh
Divyakriti Singh
Q8. What is the rank of India in the Henley Passport Index 2024?
56th
93rd
80th
91st
80th
India ranked 80th out of 199 countries in the Henley Passport Index 2024. In 2023, India was ranked 83rd.
The Henley Passport Index ranks countries based on the number of destinations that allow visa-free entry to their passport. India’s passport allows visa-free access to 62 destinations, including Thailand, Indonesia, Mauritius, Sri Lanka, and Maldives.
The most powerful passports in the world in 2024 are Japanese, Singaporean, French, German, Italian, and Spanish. Citizens of these countries can travel visa-free to 194 destinations.
Q9. Which initiative was launched by PM Narendra Modi to promote cleanliness at pilgrimage sites?
Swachh Mandir Campaign
Swachh Bharat Campaign
Swachh Nagar Campaign
Clean India Campaign
Swachh Mandir Campaign
Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched the ‘Swachh Mandir’ Campaign, a nationwide initiative focused on cleanliness at pilgrimage sites.
PM Modi has called for a nationwide initiative to make Ayodhya the cleanest city in India.
The campaign is inclusive and aims to involve all elected representatives, such as MPs, MLAs, and panchayat representatives, to work together for the success of the initiative.
Q10. Union Health and Family Welfare Minister Mansukh Mandaviya inaugurated India’s first healthy and clean food street ‘Prasadam’ in
West Bengal
Gujarat
Kerala
Madhya Pradesh
Madhya Pradesh
Union Health Minister Dr Mansukh Mandaviya inaugurated India’s first healthy and clean food street ‘Prasadam’ at Neelkanth Van, Mahakal Lok, in Ujjain, Madhya Pradesh.
Q11. Sinomicrurus gorei, recently seen in the news, belongs to which species
Frog
Butterfly
Snake
Lizard
Snake
Researchers from Mizoram University’s zoology department have discovered a new species of coral snake in Mizoram naming it Sinomicrurus gorei after Dr. Gore.
Locally called ‘Rulṭhihna,’ it resembles the traditional Mizo amber necklace ‘Ṭhihna.
Q12. Which country will host UNESCO’s World Heritage Committee in July 2024?
India
USA
Canada
Australia
India
India will host the UNESCO World Heritage Committee in New Delhi from July 21 to 31, 2024. This significant announcement was made by Vishal V Sharma, India’s Permanent Representative to UNESCO.
Q13. The government of which state has declared a new Conservation Reserve in the forest land of Sangli district namely Atpadi Conservation Reserve?
Andhra Pradesh
Maharashtra
Tamil Nadu
Haryana
Maharashtra
Q14. Rural Development Ministry signs pact with which bank to facilitate loans for SHGs?
State bank of India (SBI)
Punjab National Bank (PNB)
Indian Overseas Bank (IOB)
Bandhan Bank
State bank of India (SBI)
The Rural Development Ministry signed a MoU with the State Bank of India (SBI) to streamline and facilitate enterprise financing for rural self-help groups (SHGs),
Q15. The International Camel Festival was started in which city?
Bikaner
Jaisalmer
Kutch
Surat
Bikaner
The International Camel Festival in Rajasthan’s Bikaner district started with a vibrant Heritage Walk from Rampuriya Haveli, showing decorated camels, traditional costumes, and local folk artists.
The event featured a warm reception by residents with flowers and rangoli decorations.
Tourists and locals enjoyed folk songs, Rammats’ tunes, and dances, fostering a festive atmosphere in the city park.
MoU signed between the Government of India, Assam, and representatives of the United Liberation Front of Assam (ULFA)
Memorandum of Settlement signed between the Government of India, Government of Assam and representatives of United Liberation Front of Assam (ULFA), in New Delhi to end insurgency in the NorthEast region.
Key Points
The tripartite agreement is very important for peace in Assam and the entire Northeast. Under this agreement, ULFA representatives have agreed to abjure a path of violence, lay down all their arms and ammunition and disband their armed organisation.
Apart from this, ULFA has also agreed to vacate all camps occupied by its armed cadres, engage in the peaceful democratic process established by law and maintain the integrity of the country.
The Union Home Minister said that the Modi government has signed the NLFT agreement in 2019, Bru and Bodo in 2020, Karbi in 2021, Adivasi agreement in 2022, Assam-Meghalaya border agreement, Assam-Arunachal border agreement and agreement with UNLF in 2023.
Shri Amit Shah also said that a time-bound program will be made by the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India, to fulfill the demands of ULFA and a committee will also be formed for its monitoring.
Uttar Pradesh Plans to Develop India’s First AI City in Lucknow
Uttar Pradesh plans to establish the country’s first AI city in Lucknow. This initiative aims to create a thriving hub for artificial intelligence, integrating cutting-edge technology, research centers, and educational institutions to foster innovation and nurture the workforce of the future.
Key Points
The AI city is proposed to be located in the city of Lucknow, according to an Expression of Interest issued by UP Electronics Corporation Ltd.
The city already features Centers of Excellence in areas such as AI and MedTech, thereby forming a sound base for the establishment of the AI city.
The city is expected to become a hub for nurturing a culture of creativity and entrepreneurship among AI/ML startups.
Lucknow’s AI city represents an advanced step in implementing artificial intelligence at a large scale and nurturing the workforce of the future.
Assam CM Launches 200 Eco-Buses In Guwahati To Combat Pollution
Assam Chief Minister Himanta Biswa Sarma flagged off 200 electric buses from Guwahati. The government has taken this decision to create a pollution-free environment in Assam.
Key Points
Unlike CNG-powered buses, these buses will ply on a total of 13 routes in Guwahati. Furthermore, charging stations have been set up at several places, including Mirza and Jagiroad.
The new initiative aims to establish Guwahati as the country’s first city powered by a 100% green public transportation system by the year 2025.
Additionaly, CM Sarma ceremonially launched the National Common Mobility Card (NCMC) in Guwahati. The NCMC serves as a versatile transport card designed to simplify various transactions related to travel, toll taxes, and retail purchases, and allows cash withdrawals.
Operating via the RuPay card system, the NCMC can be obtained as a prepaid, debit, or credit card from associated banks.
NEHHDC Establishes Ashtlaxmi Haat for Northeast Arts and Crafts
The North Eastern Handicrafts and Handlooms Development Corporation (NEHHDC) establishing Ashtlaxmi Haat & Experience Centre at Guwahati with a project cost of ₹ 7.6 crore.
Key Points
The initiative attempts to develop and promote the indigenous crafts of the region by connecting craftsmen to prospective markets and consumers and generating economic, cultural, and social opportunities for creators while adding cultural value for consumers.
The Haat will have 24 permanent stalls, which will provide market access to artisans of all Northeast states & will have an artisan residency to provide accommodation to artisans from outstation.
It provides the artisans a direct city outlet bridging them to contemporary consumers seeking authentic ethnic wares.
The residency component lets craftspeople from remote hills and villages stay during sales exhibitions.
The organization procures handicrafts and handlooms from artisans and weavers across the region and retails the same. Moreover, it promotes the products at various National and International Markets through exhibitions and trade fairs.
Jammu And Kashmir Becomes First UT To Implement PM Vishwakarma Yojana
Jammu & Kashmir has become the first Union Territory to implement the PM Vishwakarma Yojana (PMBY) skill training program for craftsmen and artisans.
The initiative aims to empower and enhance the skills of the craftsmen community in the country.
The start of training for the first batch of 30 trainees in Darzi craft at the Industrial Training Institute in Shopian.
This initiative, launched by the Central government in September 2023, aims to uplift and recognize the crucial role these skilled individuals play in preserving and enriching India’s cultural heritage.
Gujarat Sets Guinness Record In Mass Surya Namaskar
Gujarat sets Guinness record for performing mass Surya Namaskar simultaneously in the state on the first day of the new year.
Over 4,000 participants across 108 locations and 51 different categories performed Surya Namaskar, solidifying the state’s commitment to wellness and cultural heritage.
The record-breaking event was held at the majestic Modhera Sun Temple. The event witnessed enthusiastic participation from diverse groups, including families, students, yoga enthusiasts, and even senior citizens.
India, UAE Launch Maiden Military Exercise ‘Desert Cyclone’
The collaborative military exercise ‘Desert Cyclone 2024’ involving India and the UAE is scheduled to take place in Rajasthan from January 2 to January 15.
Key Points
The UAE contingent is being represented by troops from the Zayed First Brigade. The Indian Army contingent comprising 45 personnel is being represented mainly by a Battalion from the Mechanised Infantry Regiment.
The aim of this Exercise is to enhance interoperability in Sub-conventional Operations including Fighting in Built-Up Area (FIBUA) in desert/ semi desert terrain under Chapter VII of the United Nations Charter on Peacekeeping Operations.
The Exercise will enhance cooperation and interoperability between both the sides during Peace Keeping Operations.
Drills planned to be rehearsed during Exercise ‘DESERT CYCLONE’ include Establishment of a Joint Surveillance Centre, Cordon and Search Operation, Domination of Built-Up Area and Heliborne Operations.
The Exercise will also foster collaborative partnership and help in sharing best practices between the two sides.
Exercise ‘DESERT CYCLONE’ signifies further strengthening of bonds of friendship and trust between India and the UAE.
The Exercise aims to achieve shared security objectives and foster bilateral relations between two friendly nations.
India, Pakistan Exchange List of Nuclear Installations
India and Pakistan exchanged the list of nuclear installations and facilities through diplomatic channels simultaneously at New Delhi and Islamabad.
About Non-Nuclear Aggression Agreement
The Non-nuclear aggression agreement is a bilateral and nuclear weapons control treaty between India and Pakistan, on the reduction (or limitation) of nuclear arms.
It is also known as the India-Pakistan Non-Attack Agreement, that was signed on 31 December 1988 and entered into force on 27 January 1991.
It provides that India and Pakistan inform each other of the nuclear installations and facilities to be covered under the Agreement on the first of January of every calendar year.
Each party shall refrain from undertaking, encouraging or participating in, directly or indirectly, any action aimed at causing the destruction of, or damage to, any nuclear installation or facility in the other country.
Importance of this agreement
Both the countries reaffirm their commitment to durable peace and the development of friendly and harmonious bilateral relations.
They are conscious of the role of confidence building measures in promoting such bilateral relations based on mutual trust and goodwill.
