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Q1. Who has been appointed as the Chairman of the Sixteenth Finance Commission?
Arvind Panagariya
Niranjan Rajadhyaksha
Dr. Soumya Kanti Ghosh
Ajay Kumar
Arvind Panagariya
Q2. Which state has become first in recording entries on the Inter-Operable Criminal Justice System (ICJS) platform?
Assam
Madhya Pradesh
Kerala
Uttar Pradesh
Uttar Pradesh
Uttar Pradesh has retained top rank for the third straight year in ensuring extensive usage of the Supreme Court e-committee’s Inter-Operable Criminal Justice System (ICJS), a nationwide platform integrating courts, police, prisons and forensic labs.
Madhya Pradesh and Bihar trail at second and third position respectively.
The wide adoption by U.P. police aims to employ ICJS’s data analytics to predict crimes, manage law & order situations better and reduce pendency of cases.
Q3. China’s cutting-edge ocean drilling vessel designed to penetrate the Earth’s crust and reach the mantle for the first time in human history is
Yaogan
Mengxiang
Zhuque
Shuijing
Mengxiang
China has unveiled its first ocean drilling vessel, the Mengxiang, which is designed to delve into the Earth’s crust and explore the mysteries of the mantle. If successful, this will mark humanity’s first exploration into the upper mantle.
Q4. Who has been recently appointed as the new Chief of Materiel of the Indian Navy?
Vice Admiral Dinesh K Tripathi
Vice Admiral Tarun Sobti
Vice Admiral Kiran Deshmukh
Vice Admiral Naveed Ashraf
Vice Admiral Kiran Deshmukh
Vice Admiral Kiran Deshmukh has taken over as the new Chief of Materiel of the Indian Navy from Vice Admiral Sandeep Naithani. Vice Admiral Deshmukh is an alumnus of VJTI Mumbai and a postgraduate from Defence Services Staff College, Wellington.
The Chief of Materiel is the head of the Materials Branch of the Navy, dealing with logistics and maintenance.
Q5. Which oceanographic research vessel of the Indian Navy has embarked on the Sagar Maitri Mission-4 to Oman?
RV Sindhu Sankalp
INS Sagardhwani
INS Samundar
RV Sindhu Sadhana
INS Sagardhwani
INS Sagardhwani, an oceanographic research vessel of the Indian Navy, has embarked on the Sagar Maitri Mission-4 to Oman. The goal of the mission is to establish long-term scientific partnerships and collaboration with Indian Ocean Rim countries for ocean research and development.
Q6. Which company has decided to introduced “Copilot key” in PC keyboards?
Apple
Google
Microsoft
Yahoo
Microsoft
Q7. Joint military exercise ‘Desert Cyclone’ is conducted between India and which country?
USA
Iran
Australia
UAE
UAE
The Joint Military Exercise ‘Desert Cyclone’, between India and UAE is being organized in Mahajan, Rajasthan. The exercise aims to enhance interoperability by learning and sharing best practices in operations.
Q8. India’s first submarine tourism will be started in which state?
Tamil Nadu
Gujarat
Maharashtra
Kerala
Gujarat
The Gujarat government, in partnership with Mazgaon Dock Limited, is set to pioneer India’s first-ever submarine tourism project at Dwarka.
Q9. Who among the following has been honoured with M S Swaminathan Award?
Prof B R Kamboj
Jadav Payeng
M. Yoganathan
Rajendra Singh
Prof B R Kamboj
Prof. B.R. Kamboj, the Vice Chancellor of Chaudhary Charan Singh Haryana Agricultural University, has been bestowed with the prestigious M.S. Swaminathan Award. He was awarded with this prestigious award for his significant contributions as a scientist and extension specialist in the field of agronomy.
Q10. Which space agency has launched XPoSat aboard PSLV-C58?
ISA
NASA
ISRO
JAXA
ISRO
Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has successfully launched X-ray Polarimeter Satellite (XPoSat) aboard Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle PSLV-C58.
Q11. Who among the following has been appointed as Vice Chief of the Naval Staff
Vice Admiral Dinesh K Tripathi
Vice Admiral Ajit Singh
Vice Admiral Gurpreet Singh
Vice Admiral Kuldeep Yadav
Vice Admiral Dinesh K. Tripathi
The Vice Chief is the deputy of the Chief of the Naval Staff and is usually the second highest ranking officer of the Indian Navy.
Q12. Who will represent India at Uganda NAM Summit in January 2024?
Amit Shah
Dr S Jaishankar
Nirmala Sitaraman
Rajnath Singh
Dr S Jaishankar
India’s External Affairs Minister Dr S Jaishankar is set to represent India at the upcoming Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) Summit in Uganda’s capital Kampala.
Q13. Who becomes the first woman to amass a $100 billion?
Nita Ambani
Françoise Bettencourt Meyers
Julia Koch
Jacqueline Mars
Françoise Bettencourt Meyers
Q14. Which city will host the International Kite Festival ahead of Ram Temple’s consecration?
Jamnagar
Surat
Ayodhya
Rajkot
Ayodhya
Q15. First all-girls Sainik School inaugurated recently in which state?
Assam
Himachal Pradesh
Bihar
Uttar Pradesh
Uttar Pradesh
The first-ever all-girls Sainik School was inaugurated in Vrindavan, Uttar Pradesh.
Highlights of Interim Union Budget 2024-25 – Analysis & Important points for APSC Exam
On February 01, 2024, Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman presented the Interim Union Budget for the financial year 2024-25 in the Parliament, with the ‘mantra’ of ‘Sabka Saath, Sabka Vikas, and Sabka Vishwas’ and the whole of nation approach of “Sabka Prayas”. This was the sixth budget presented by the current FM and the last one of Prime Minister Narendra Modi-led government’s second term. The full budget will be presented in July 2024, after the new government is formed post the Lok Sabha Elections.
Finance Minister confirmed the continuation of existing rates for direct taxes, indirect taxes, and export duties. She also disclosed an 11% surge in the upcoming year’s capex outlay, reaching ₹11.1 lakh crore. During the fiscal year’s federal budget announcement, the fiscal gap revised to 5.8% of the gross domestic product. Nominal GDP growth for FY25 is projected at 10.5%.
Highlights & Important Point of Interim Union Budget 2024-25
~ PART- A ~
Social Justice
To focus on upliftment of four major castes, that is, ‘Garib’ (Poor), ‘Mahilayen’ (Women), ‘Yuva’ (Youth) and ‘Annadata’(Farmer).
Govt to form high-powered panel to address population growth challenges and demographic changes.
‘Garib Kalyan, Desh ka Kalyan’
Government assisted 25 crore people out of multi-dimensional poverty in last 10 years.
DBT of Rs. 34 lakh crore using PM-Jan Dhan accounts led to savings of Rs. 2.7 lakh crore for the Government.
PM-SVANidhi provided credit assistance to 78 lakh street vendors. 2.3 lakh have received credit for the third time.
PM-JANMAN Yojana to aid the development of particularly vulnerable tribal groups (PVTG).
PM-Vishwakarma Yojana provides end-to-end support to artisans and crafts people engaged in 18 trades.
Welfare of ‘Annadata’
PM-KISAN SAMMAN Yojana provided financial assistance to 11.8 crore farmers.
Under PM Fasal BimaYojana, crop insurance is given to 4 crore farmers
Electronic National Agriculture Market (e-NAM) integrated 1361 mandis, providing services to 1.8 crore farmers with trading volume of Rs. 3 lakh crore.
Momentum for Nari Shakti
30 crore Mudra Yojana loans given to women entrepreneurs.
Female enrolment in higher education gone up by 28%.
In STEM courses, girls and women constitute 43% of enrolment, one of the highest in the world.
Over 70% houses under PM Awas Yojana given to women from rural areas.
PM Awas Yojana (Grameen)
Despite COVID challenges, the target of three crore houses under PM Awas Yojana (Grameen) will be achieved soon.
Two crore more houses to be taken up in the next five years.
A scheme to help middle class living in rented houses to buy or build their own houses will be launched
Rooftop solarization and muft bijli
1 crore households to obtain 300 units free electricity every month through rooftop solarization. Each household is expected to save Rs.15000 to Rs.18000 annually.
Ayushman Bharat
Healthcare cover under Ayushman Bharat scheme to be extended to all ASHA workers, Anganwadi Workers and Helpers.
Agriculture and food processing
Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana has benefitted 38 lakh farmers and generated 10 lakh employment.
Pradhan Mantri Formalisation of Micro Food Processing Enterprises Yojana has assisted 2.4 lakh SHGs and 60000 individuals with credit linkages.
Research and Innovation for catalyzing growth, employment and development
A corpus of Rs.1 lakh crore to be established with fifty-year interest free loan to provide long-term financing or refinancing with long tenors and low or nil interest rates.
A new scheme to be launched for strengthening deep-tech technologies for defence purposes and expediting ‘atmanirbharta’.
Infrastructure
Capital expenditure outlay for Infrastructure development and employment generation to be increased by 11.1 per cent to Rs.11,11,111 crore, that will be 3.4 per cent of the GDP.
Railways
3 major economic railway corridor programmes identified under the PM Gati Shakti to be implemented to improve logistics efficiency and reduce cost
Energy, mineral and cement corridors
Port connectivity corridors
High traffic density corridors
Forty thousand normal rail bogies to be converted to Vande Bharat standards.
Aviation Sector
Number of airports in the country doubled to 149.
Five hundred and seventeen new routes are carrying 1.3 crore passengers.
Indian carriers have placed orders for over 1000 new aircrafts.
Green Energy
Coal gasification and liquefaction capacity of 100 MT to be set up by 2030.
Phased mandatory blending of compressed biogas (CBG) in compressed natural gas (CNG) for transport and piped natural gas (PNG) for domestic purposes to be mandated.
Tourism sector
States to be encouraged to take up comprehensive development of iconic tourist centres including their branding and marketing at global scale.
Framework for rating of the tourist centres based on quality of facilities and services to be established.
Long-term interest free loans to be provided to States for financing such development on matching basis.
Investments
FDI inflow during 2014-23 of USD 596 billion was twice of the inflow during 2005-14.
Reforms in the States for ‘Viksit Bharat’
A provision of Rs.75,000 crore rupees as fifty-year interest free loan is proposed to support milestone-linked reforms by the State Governments.
Budget Estimates 2024-25
Total receipts other than borrowings and the total expenditure are estimated at Rs.30.80 and Rs.47.66 lakh crore respectively.
Tax receipts are estimated at Rs.26.02 lakh crore.
Scheme of fifty-year interest free loan for capital expenditure to states to be continued this year with total outlay of Rs.1.3 lakh crore.
Fiscal deficit in 2024-25 is estimated to be 5.1 per cent of GDP
Revised Estimates (RE) 2023-24
RE of the total receipts other than borrowings is Rs.27.56 lakh crore, of which the tax receipts are Rs.23.24 lakh crore.
RE of the total expenditure is Rs.44.90 lakh crore.
Revenue receipts at Rs.30.03 lakh crore are expected to be higher than the Budget Estimate, reflecting strong growth momentum and formalization in the economy.
RE of the fiscal deficit is 5.8 per cent of GDP for 2023-24.
~ PART- B ~
Direct taxes
FM proposes to retain same tax rates for direct taxes
Direct tax collection tripled, return filers increased to 2.4 times, in the last 10 years
Government to improve tax payer services
Outstanding direct tax demands upto Rs 25000 pertaining to the period upto FY 2009-10 withdrawn
Outstanding direct tax demands upto Rs 10000 for financial years 2010-11 to 2014-15 withdrawn
This will benefit one crore tax payers
Tax exemption on certain income of IFSC units extended by a year to 31.03.2025 from 31.03.2024
Direct tax collection target set at ₹21.99-lakh crore, while that of indirect tax is at ₹16.22-lakh crore.
Indirect taxes
FM proposes to retain same tax rates for indirect taxes and import duties
GST unified the highly fragmented indirect tax regime in India
Average monthly gross GST collection doubled to Rs 1.66 lakh crore this year, while GST tax base has doubled
State SGST revenue buoyancy (including compensation released to states) increased to 1.22 in post-GST period(2017-18 to 2022-23) from 0.72 in the pre-GST period (2012-13 to 2015-16)
GST led to supply chain optimization and reduced the compliance burden on trade and industry. Lower logistics cost and taxes helped reduce prices of goods and services, benefiting the consumers
Tax rationalization efforts over the years
No tax liability for income upto Rs 7 lakh, up from Rs 2.2 lakh in FY 2013-14
Presumptive taxation threshold for retail businesses increased to Rs 3 crore from Rs 2 crore
Presumptive taxation threshold for professionals increased to Rs 75 lakh from Rs 50 lakh
Corporate income tax decreased to 22% from 30% for existing domestic companies
Corporate income tax rate at 15% for new manufacturing companies
Tax benefits to start-ups and investments made by sovereign wealth or pension funds extended by 1 year till March 31, 2025
Preliminary Examination of APSC CC Exam 2023-24 consists of two papers: (1) Paper-I (General Studies I) and (2) Paper-II (General Studies II) a.k.a. CSAT paper consisting of 200 Marks each. Each paper is of Multiple-Choice Questions of total 200 marks. Paper-II is of qualifying nature with minimum qualifying marks fixed at 33%.
This Test Series is carefully crafted to focus proportionately on relevant concepts and facts to help the aspirants prepare well for the Preliminary exam and help them score well above the qualifying marks to make them clear the Preliminary Examination and qualify for the Mains Examination of APSC CCE 2023-24.
PROGRAM APPROACH
The Test Series consist of Twelve Full-length Tests of 200 Marks each. Entire syllabus of the Paper-I (General Studies I) and Paper-II (General Studies II a.k.a. CSAT) paper will be covered in Nine Full-length Tests and Three Full-length Tests, respectively. As per schedule, PDF format of the Test Question Paper will also be mailed to the participants’ registered email. PDF format of Answer/Solution sheets will be mailed in 2/3 days. Limited study materials will be uploaded in the websitewww.assamexam.com.
APSC CCE (Prelim) 2023-24 Test Series
TEST SCHEDULE & SYLLABUS SPLIT-UP
Test
Sections Covered
Test Date
Solution/
Answer Date
1
History of India and Indian National Movement. (30%Qs related to Assam)
10-02-2024
T+3 days
2
Indian and World Geography-Physical, Social, Economic Geography of India and the World. (30%Qs related to Assam)
14-02-2024
T+3 days
3
GS Paper II (CSAT) Mock Test
16-02-2024
T+3 days
4
Indian Polity and Governance-Constitution, Political System, Panchayati Raj, Public Policy, Rights issues etc. (30%Qs related to Assam)
19-02-2024
T+3 days
5
Economic and Social Development-Sustainable Development, Poverty, Inclusion, Demographics, Social Sector Initiatives, etc. (30%Qs related to Assam)
23-02-2024
T+3 days
6
General issues on Environment ecology, Bio-Diversity and Climate Change + General Science. (30%Qs related to Assam)
Adhikary Education reserves all rights related to Enrollment to the Test Series.
Adhikary Education reserves all rights to make any change/modify/cancel exam(s) schedule without any prior information, if need so arises.
Adhikary Education’s materials/services are for individuals use only. In case any person is found Involved in any violation of copyrights of Adhikary Education materials, the admission to the test series will be cancelled and legal actions may be taken.
The candidates enrolling in the test series, needs to provide Roll No. and other details, as and when asked to do so. This information will not be shared with any other party, without your consent.
Fee once paid, is non-refundable and non-transferable in all circumstances.
Provision(s) of ‘Payment Terms and Conditions’ of www.assamexam.com/terms-conditions/ will be applicable for payment in regard to this test series also.
The Assam Public Service Commission will hold the Preliminary Examination of the Combined Competitive Examination, 2023 for screening candidates for the Main Examination for recruitment to the services/posts as per the actual number of vacancies as shown below, in accordance with the Assam Public Services Combined Competitive Examination Rules, 1989 (as amended till 2023).
———————————– Total = 235 Posts (53 posts Reserve for Women & 9 posts Reserved for PWD )
CENTRES FOR THE PRELIMINARY & MAIN EXAMINATION:
(A) The centres for the Combined Competitive (Preliminary) Examination are BARPETA, BONGAIGAON, BISWANATH CHARIALI, DHEMAJI, DHUBRI, DIBRUGARH, DIPHU, GOALPARA, GOLAGHAT, GUWAHATI, HAFLONG, HAMREN, HATSINGIMARI, HOJAI, JORHAT, KAJALGAON, KARIMGANJ, KOKRAJHAR, MAJULI, MANGALDOI, MORIGAON, MUSHALPUR, NAGAON, NALBARI, NORTH LAKHIMPUR, SILCHAR, SIVASAGAR, SONARI, TEZPUR, TINSUKIA AND UDALGURI.
(B) The Combined Competitive (Main) Examination will be held in GUWAHATI only.
(C) The exact dates for Preliminary and Main Examination respectively will be notified in due course.
(D) The centres and the date (even after it is notified) for holding examination may, however be changed by the Commission at its discretion owing to unforeseen exigencies. Candidates admitted to the examination will be informed of the time-table and place or places of examination. The candidates should note that no request for change of centre will be granted.
Tentativedate for Preliminary Exam is 17th March, 2024 (Sunday) & Main Examination is tentatively scheduled in June/July, 2024.
CANDIDATES ARE REQUIRED TO APPLY FOR THE PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION THROUGH THE WEBSITE “https://apscrecruitment.in” ONLY. NO OTHER MODE FOR SUBMISSION OF APPLICATION IS ALLOWED.
A) The Online Applications can be filled up from 17 January, 2024 to 06 February 2024 till 5:00 PM after which the link will be disabled.
Last date for payment of prescribed fee is 08 February 2024 till 5,00 P,M.
B. FEES FOR PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION: Under the Digital India initiative by Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), Government of India, APSC has decided to launch its Online Recruitment portal with the help of CSC-SPV, a MeitY approved organization, which will charge a processing fee of Rs. 40.00/- + 18% tax = Rs.47.20/- from each candidate.
(a) Nationality: The candidate must be an Indian citizen. (b) Age: The candidate should not be less than 21 years and more than 38 years of age on 01.01.2023.
Relaxation: The upper age limit is relaxable (i) By 5 years for SC/STP/STH candidates i.e. upto 43 years. (ii) By 3 years for OBC/MOBC candidates i.e. upto 41 years as per Govt. Notification No. ABP.6/2016/9 dated Dispur the 25th April, 2018. (iii) For persons with Benchmark Disabilities (PWBD) by 10 years irrespective of SC/ST/OBC and General Category of candidates as per Govt. Notification No. ABP 144/95/121 dated Dispur the 28th October, 2015.
(c) Education: The candidate must hold a Degree from any of the Universities incorporated by an Act of Central or State Legislature in India or other educational institutions established by an Act of Parliament or declared to be deemed as a University under Section 3 of the University Grants Commission Act, 1956 or possess such qualification as may be declared equivalent by the Government. (d) A candidate should be ab]e to speak Assamese or other official language or associate official languages of the State or any of the tribal languages of the State. (e) A candidate should be registered in a District Employment 0ffice of Assam. (f) A candidate must be an original inhabitant of Assam. (g) Candidates must possess the prescribed qualification on the date of submission of their applications. (h) Persons with Benchmark Disabilities should ascertain the post for which a particular category of disability is entitled for reservation as per the advertisement and should apply/opt for the preference accordingly at the time of filling up the forms for Main Examination. (i) As per Govt. notification no.ABP.69/2019/17, dated 06/11/2019 candidates have to submit a declaration regarding “The Small Family Norms” in Form-A at the time of applying for the C.C. (Mains) Examination.
The Combined Competitive Examination consists of two successive stages:- (i) The Preliminary Examination (Objective Type) (ii) The Main Examination (written & interview)
(I). PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION
The Preliminary Examination will consist of two papers of objective type multiple choice questions of two hours duration each.
Paper-I – General studies I – 200 Marks – 2 hrs Time (Objective type multiple choice question paper)
Paper-II – General Studies II – 200 Marks – 2 hrs Time (Objective type multiple choice question paper)
Total marks = 400
The questions will be of objective type with multiple choices
Candidates will have to use ONLYBLACK / BLUE BALL PEN.
This Examination is meant to serve as a screening test only.
The marks obtained in the Preliminary Examination by the Candidates who are declared qualified for admission to the Main Examination will not be counted for determining the final order of merit.
There will be negative marking for incorrect answers as detailed below: (i) There are four alternatives for the answers to every question. A penalty of one-fourth (.25) of the total marks assigned to that question will be deducted for each wrong answers marked by a candidate. (ii) If a candidate marksmore than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happen to be correct and there will be same penalty as above for that question. (iii) If a question is left blank i.e no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.
The General Studies II paper of the Combined Competitive (Prelim) Examination will be a qualifying paper with minimum qualifying marks fixed at 33% . The Commission will draw a list of candidates to be qualified for Combined Competitive (Main) Examination based on the criterion of minimum qualifying marks of 33% in General Studies Paper-II of Combined Competitive (Prelim) Examination and total qualifying marks of General Studies paper- I of Combined Competitive (Prelim) Examination as may be determined by the Commission.
The candidates may refer to the Assam Public Services Combined Competitive Examination (Amendment) Rules, 2019 for syllabi of General Studies I & General Studies II.
The Main Examination consists of (A) Written Examination and (B) Interview Test.
(A) WRITTEN EXAMINATION
a) On the results of the Preliminary Examination, the number of candidates to be admitted to the written part of the Main Examination will be 11 to 12 times the number of vacancies notified for each category. The selection will be strictly on the basis of merit adhering to the norms of Vertical and Horizontal Reservation as per prescribed law in force. b) The written examination shall consist of six papers of conventional essay type/objective type with limited words. Marks obtained in Interview for personality Test shall be counted for ranking. The written examination will consist of the following papers:
Sl. No
Papers
Type of Paper
Marks
Duration in Hours
1
Paper 1
Essay
250
3 Hrs
2
Paper 2 to 6
General Studies
250 per paper
3 Hrs per paper
5
Interview Test (After qualifying in written test)
180
–
TOTAL
1680
A candidate shall be allowed to write his/her answer papers in English or Assamese language.
(B) INTERVIEW TEST: 275 Marks
On the basis of result of the written part of the Main Exam, candidates will be called for interview in the raio of 1:3 against the number of vacancies advertised.
The candidates will be interviewed by a board that will have before them a record of his/her career. He/She will be asked questions on matters of general interest. The objective of the interview is to assess the personal suitability of the candidate for a career in public service by a board of competent and unbiased observers. The test is intended to judge the mental caliber of a candidate. In broad terms this is really an assessment of not only his intellectual qualities but also social traits and his interest in current affairs. Some of the qualities to be judged are mental alertness, critical powers of assimilation, clear and logical exposition, balance of judgment, variety and depth of interest, ability for social cohesion and leadership, intellectual and moral integrity.
The technique of the interview is not that of a strict cross-examination but of a natural, though directed and purposive conversation which is intended to reveal the mental qualities of the candidate.
The interview test is not intended to be a test either of the specialized or general knowledge of the candidates which has been already tested through their written papers. Candidates are expected to have taken an intelligent interest not only in their special subjects of academic study but also in the events which are happening around them both within and outside their own State or Country as well as in modern currents of thought and in new discoveries which should rouse the curiosity of well-educated youth.
The interview, however, will not have any qualifying marks. The marks scored at the interview will be added to the marks scored in the written Examination (Main) and the ranking of the candidates will be determined on the basis of the total marks obtained.
The Commission shall recommend exactly the same number of candidates for different posts as notified. The candidates will be allotted cadre strictly on the basis of merit cum preferences opted by candidates in their applications for the Main Examination. The Commission shall not recommend a candidate for a post which he/she has not opted for.
e-ADMISSION CERTIFICATES (ADMIT CARD)
(a) Admission certificate indicating the eligible candidate’s Roll no., venue and programme of the exam will be uploaded in the Commission’s website, for appearing in the Preliminary/Main examination.
(b) The mere fact that a certificate of admission has been issued will not imply that his/her candidature has been finally cleared by the Commission. Candidates may note that the Commission takes up the verification of eligibility conditions only after the candidates have qualified for the Main Examination.
(c) Candidates must produce a photo identity proof of any of the following in the examination hall: (i) Pan Card (ii) Driving Licence (iii) Voters ID card (iv) Bank Passbook containing photograph (v) ID Card issued by the educational Institution where he/she is studying presently (vi) ID card issued by Government or public sector undertaking. (vii) Passport
(d) The Commission reserves the right to cancel the candidature of any candidate as and when any ineligibility condition is detected. If any information declared by the candidate is found to be false at any stage; the candidate will be penalized as per prevailing law/rules.
(e) The decision of the Commission as to the eligibility or otherwise of a candidate for admission to the examination shall be final.
NOTE: This page is for informative purpose only, APSC is the final deciding authority of any information regarding this exam. For more update, please visit APSC website – https://apsc.nic.in/
Q1. India’s first bamboo-based biorefinery which is set to start operations next year, is located in which state?
Tripura
Mizoram
Kerala
Assam
Assam
Q2. Where did the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently inaugurate a sub-office to strengthen its commitment to financial inclusion and development in the region?
Itanagar
Shillong
Srinagar
Gangtok, Sikkim
Itanagar
Q3. Who was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2023?
Narges Mohammadi
Shirin Ebadi
Masih Alinejad
Javad Zarif
Narges Mohammadi
Q4. The 37th National Games 2023 being played in which state?
Gujarat
Kerala
Sikkim
Goa
Goa
Q5. Where was India’s first Regional Rapid Transit System (RRTS) launched?
Surat
Ghaziabad
Ahmedabad
Hyderabad
Ghaziabad
Q6. Who won the 2023 Norman Borlaug Field Award for her/his groundbreaking work in engaging farmers in demand-driven rice seed systems?
M. S. Swaminathan
Swati Nayak
Rajendra Singh Paroda
Rattan Lal
Swati Nayak
Q7. Who won the 2023 Ballon d’Or for men?
Kylian Mbappe
Cristiano Ronaldo
Erling Haaland
Lionel Messi
Lionel Messi
Q8. ‘Valley Queen Heritage train’, which was inaugurated recently, is the first heritage train of which state?
Karnataka
Gujarat
Sikkim
Rajasthan
Rajasthan
Q9. Which institution has approved the replacement of the term “India” with “Bharat” in all textbooks across the country?
CBSE
NCERT
ICSE
Ministry of Education
NCERT
Q10. On which date is National Unity Day celebrated in India?
Important Historical Monuments of India – GK Notes for APSC, ADRE & other Assam Govt job exams
Monuments of India portray tradition and diverse cultural brilliance. They are spread across the length and breadth of the country. Historical monuments act as authentic shielding pillars of remarkable artistic mastery. India is rich in civilisation, heritage establishments, royal abodes, and sanctuaries.
Some of the most famous monuments of India include the Red Fort, Konark Sun Temple, Taj Mahal, Golconda Fort, Gateway of India, Golden Temple, India Gate, Ellora and Ajanta Caves, Group of Monuments at Mamallapuram, Qutab Minar, etc.
Monuments are structures or buildings well-known for their culture and architectural legacy. They are long-lasting and popular emblems of Indian history as they depict political and historical information about them.
Monuments of India
Built by
Year/Century
Place
Agra Fort
Akbar
1573 AD
Agra (UP)
Agra city
Sikandar Lodi
–
Aram Bagh
Babur
1528 AD
Tomb of Itmad-Ud-Daula
Noor Jahan
1628 AD
Jama Masjid
Shah Jahan
1648 AD
Shish Mahal
Shahjahan
1632 AD
Taj Mahal
Shahjahan
1653 AD
Fatehpur Sikri
Jodha Bai Palace
Birbal Palace
Panch Mahal
Buland Darwaza
Akbar
16th century
Akbar’s Tomb
Akbar and his son Jahangir
1613 AD
Sikandra, Agra (UP)
Deewan-E- Khas
Shahjahan
–
Agra Fort, Agra (UP)
Moti Masjid
Shahjahan
1635 AD
Anand Bhawan
Motilal Nehru
1930 AD
Allahabad, (UP)
Bada Imambara
Asaf-ud-daula
1785 AD
Lucknow (UP)
Chhota Imambara
Muhammad Ali Shah
–
Jantar Mantar
Maharaja Sawai Jai Singh II
1724-1738 AD
Mathura (UP)
Jantar Mantar
Maharaja Sawai Jai Singh II
1724-1739 AD
Varanasi (UP)
Rock cut temple
Mahendravarman-I
8th century
Mamallapuram (Tamil Nadu)
Shore temple
Narasimhavarman-II
8th century
Kailasanathar Temple
Narasimhavarman-II
685-705 AD
Kanchipuram (Tamil Nadu)
Airavatesvara Temple
Rajaraja I
12th century
Darasuram (Tamil Nadu)
Brihadeshwara Temple
Rajaraja Chola I
1010 AD
Tanjore (Tamil Nadu)
Gangaikondacholapuram
Rajendra I
12th century
Gangaikonda cholapuram (Tamil Nadu)
Saint George Fort
East India Company
1644 AD
Chennai (Tamil Nadu)
Meenakshi Temple
–
–
Madurai, Tamil Nadu
Adhai Din Ka Jhopra
Qutubuddin Aibak
1192 AD
Ajmer (Rajasthan)
Dargah Ajmer Sharif
Sultan Shyasuddin
–
Hawa Mahal
Maharaja Pratap Singh
1799 AD
Jaipur (Rajasthan)
Nahargarh Fort
Maharaja Sawai Jai Singh II
1734 AD
Jaigarh Fort
Maharaja Sawai Jai Singh II
1726 AD
Vijaya Stambha
Maharana Kumbha
1448 AD
Chittorgarh (Rajasthan)
Dilwara Jain Temple
Vimal Shah
1582 AD
Mount Abu (Rajasthan)
Bharatpur Fort
Raja Surajmal Singh
19th century
Bharatpur (Rajasthan)
Amber Fort
Man Singh I
1592 AD
Jaipur (Rajasthan)
Jantar Mantar
Maharaja Sawai Jai Singh II
1724-1736 AD
Mehrangarh Fort
Rao Jodha
1460 AD
Jodhpur (Rajasthan)
Jantar Mantar
Maharaja Sawai Jai Singh II
1724-1737 AD
Ujjain (MP)
Khajuraho Temples
Chandelas
950-1050 AD
MP
Char Minar
Quli Qutub Shah
1591 AD
Hyderabad (Telangana)
Macca Masjid
Quli Qutub Shah
1694 AD
Golconda Fort
Qutub Shahi rulers
16th century
Shri Venkateswara Temple
–
–
Andhra Pradesh
Ajanta Caves
Gupta rulers
4-10th century
Aurangabad (Maharashtra)
Bibi Ka Maqbara
Aurangzeb
1661 AD
Ellora Caves
Rashtrakuta rulers
6-10th century
Maharashtra
Elephanta Caves
Rashtrakuta rulers
5-9 century
Mumbai (Maharashtra)
Gateway of India
British Govt.
20th century
Vikramasila Monastery
Dharma Pala
8th century
Bihar
Nalanda University
Kumargupta I
–
Shershah’s Tomb
Shershah’s son
1545 AD
Sasaram (Bihar)
Purana Qila
Shershah Suri
16th century
Delhi
Safdar Jung Tomb
Shuja-ud-Daula
1754 AD
Qutub Minar
Qutubuddin Aibak
1193 AD
Alai Darwaza
Alauddin Khiliji
1311 AD
Hauz Khas
Alauddin Khilji
–
Ferozshah Kotla
Ferozshan Tughlaq
–
Khirki Masjid
Ghyasuddin Tughlaq
1354 AD
Humayun’s Tomb
Empress Bega Begum
1533 AD
Jama Masjid
Shahjahan
1656 AD
Red Fort
Shahjahan
1639 AD
Moti Masjid
Aurangzeb
1660 AD
Delhi Fort, Delhi
Jantar Mantar
Maharaja Sawai Jai Singh II
1724-1735 AD
New Delhi
India Gate
Edwin Lutyens (Architect)
–
Lal Bagh
Hyder Ali
1760 AD
Bengaluru (Karnataka)
Gol Gumbaz (largest dome in India)
Muhammad Adil Shah
1656 AD
Bijapur, Karnataka
Hampi Monuments
–
–
Karnataka
Swarna Mandir (Golden Temple)
Guru Ram Das with the fifth, Guru Arjan
1577 AD
Amritsar (Punjab)
Shantiniketan
Rabindra Nath Tagore
19th century
West Bengal
Victoria Memorial
British Govt.
1921 AD
Kolkata (West Bengal)
Sun Temple
Narsimhadeva I
1250 AD
Konark (Odisha)
Jagannath Temple
Anantvarman Ganga
1161 AD
Puri (Odisha)
Shalimar Garden
Jahangir
1619 AD
Srinagar (Jammu and Kashmir)
Sabarmati Ashram
Mahatma Gandhi
Gujarat
Ahmadabad
Ajanta- Ellora Caves
Gupta rulers
Maharashtra
Aurangabad
Ajmer Sharif Dargah
Sultan Shyasuddin
Rajasthan
Ajmer
Jodhpur Fort
Rao Jodha
Jodhpur
Belur Math
Swami Vivekananda
West Bengal
Kolkata
Victoria Memorial
British Govt.
Kolkata
State
Monument
Place
Built by
Bihar
Golghar
Patna
British Govt.
Pathar Ki Masjid
Patna
Pervez Shah
Sher Shah’s Tomb
Sasaram
Mir Muhammad Aliwal Khan
Vishnupad Temple
Gaya
Rani Ahilyabai
Delhi
Feroz Shah Kotla
Delhi
Ferozshan Tughlaq
Hauz Khas
Delhi
Alauddin Khilji
Humayun Tomb
Delhi
Empress Bega Begum
Jama Masjid
Delhi
Shahjahan
Jantar-Mantar
Delhi
Sawai Jai Singh
Lakshmi Narayan Temple
Delhi
Birla Family
Moti Masjid
Delhi
Aurangzeb
President House
Delhi
British Govt.
Qutub Minar
Delhi
Qutubuddin Aibak
Red Fort
Delhi
Shahjahan
Safdarjung Tomb
Delhi
Shuja-ud-daula
Gujarat
Sabarmati Ashram
Ahmadabad
Mahatma Gandhi
Nishat Garden
Srinagar
Asaf Ali
Shalimar Garden
Srinagar
Jahangir
Karnataka
Gol Gumbaz
Bijapur
Yaqut of Dabul
Maharashtra
Ajanta- Ellora Caves
Aurangabad
Gupta rulers
Bibi Ka Maqbara
Aurangabad
Aurangzeb
Elephanta Cave
Mumbai
Rashtrakuta rulers
Gateway Of India
Mumbai
British Govt.
Kanheri Fort
Mumbai
Buddhists
Odisha
Jagannath Temple
Puri
Anantavarman Ganga
Sun Temple
Konark
Narasimhadeva I
Punjab
Golden Temple
Amritsar
Guru Ramdas
Bharatpur Fort
Bharatpur
Raja Surajmal Singh
Dilwara Jain Temple
Mount Abu
Siddharaja
Hawa Mahal
Jaipur
Maharaja Pratap Singh
Jaigarh Fort
Jaipur
Sawai Jai Singh
Jodhpur Fort
Jodhpur
Rao Jodha
Nahargarh Fort
Jaipur
Sawai Jai Singh
Vijaya Stambha
Chittorgarh
Maharana Kumbha
Tamil Nadu
Saint George Fort
Chennai
East India Company
Telangana
Char- Minar
Hyderabad
Quli Qutub Shah
Makka Masjid
Hyderabad
Quli Qutub Shah
UP
Agra Fort
Agra
Akbar
Anand Bhawan
Allahabad
Motilal Nehru
Deewan-E- Khas
Agra Fort
Shahjahan
Fatehpur Sikri
Agra
Akbar
Moti Masjid
Agra
Shahjahan
Shish Mahal
Agra
Shahjahan
Taj Mahal
Agra
Shahjahan
West Bengal
Shantiniketan
West Bengal
Rabindranath Tagore
Victoria Memorial
Kolkata
British Govt.
The important monuments of India are designed and nurtured by the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI). To conclude, UP has the highest number of monuments (741), whereas Manipur has the lowest (1).
Important Monuments in Assam & North-East India states
