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Q82. Bhogeswar Baruah was the first Arjuna Award winner from Assam in 1966. Who was the 2nd Assamese to win this coveted award of Indian sports in 1987?
Tayabun Nisha
Monalisa Baruah Mehta
Madalisa Hazarika
Toshen Bora
Correct option: (B) Monalisa Baruah Mehta.
Five Arjuna Award winners from Assam
Arjuna Award is India’s second highest sporting honour. Started in 1961, the Arjuna Awards are given by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports to recognize outstanding achievement in sports. Since then five sports persons from Assam had been awarded with this prestigious award.
Bhogeswar Baruah
Bhogeswar Baruah is the first Arjuna Award winner from Assam. He received the prestigious award in 1966. He won gold medal in the 800 metres race at Bangkok Asian Games in 1966. Baruah’s birthday is celebrated on September 3 every year in Assam, called Abhiruchi Sports Day.
Monalisa Baruah Mehta.
Ace table tennis player Monalisa Baruah Mehta is the second Assamese to receive Arjuna Award. She received the prestigious award in 1987. Monalisa is married to ace table tennis player Kamalesh Mehta. Monalisa was the 12 time state champion and won the national table tennis championship eight times.
Jayanta Talukdar
Ace archer Jayanta Talukdar received the Arjuna Award in 2006. He is the third sports person from Assam, after Bhogeswar Baruah (1966) and Monalisa Barua Mehta (1987) to receive this prestigious award. Jayanta Talukdar made it to the Indian men’s recurve archers team for London Olympics 2012.
Shiva Thapa
World Championships bronze-medallist Shiva Thapa is the fourth Assamese player to receive the prestigious award in 2016. Thapa was the only boxer recommended in 2016 for Arjuna Award. Shiva Thapa participated in the 2012 London Olympics. He was the youngest Indian boxer to qualify for the Olympics.
Hima Das
India’s track queen Hima Das is the latest addition to the list of Arjuna awardees from Assam this year. She is the second athlete after Bhogeswar Baruah (1966) and fifth Assamese player to receive this award.
Q83.
Q83. Which Assamese film won the first-even National Film Award (the President’s Certificate of Merit) for regional language category in 1955?
Piyoli Phukan
Maniram Dewan
Indramalati
Ronga Police
(A) Piyoli Phukan
The 1955 Phani Sarma directorial film Piyali Phukan received the first Certificate of Merit.
The film is based on the life and struggle of a historical character of Assam, Piyoli Phukan, son of Badan Borphukan, who revolted against British occupation. He was sentenced to death and hanged in 1830 at Jorhat. The film is produced by Gama Prasad Agarwalla under the banner of Rupjyoti Production, Tezpur, Assam. Piyoli Phukan is the first Assamese film, which got national reorganization.
Film Ronga Police, directed by Nip Barua, became the first film to receive the president’s Silver Medal for Best Feature Film in Assamese.
Q84. Great Footballer Talimeren Ao was born in undivided Assam (in Naga Hills
district), and went on to study at Cotton College and RG Kar Medical College for his degree in medicine. He holds an unique status in Indian football. What is that?
He scored the first goal for India in international matches.
He was the first captain of Indian football team in 1948 London Olympics.
He was the flag bearer of Indian contingent in 1948 London Olympics.
Both b and c
Correct option: (D) Both b and c
Talimeren Ao was an Indian footballer and physician. He is best known as the captain of Indian team in their first ever match. He was born on 28 January 1918 in the then Naga Hills District of Assam. He was a figurehead of India’s football history, and his name is resonant in the collective memory of the people.
Ao was the captain of the India national football team in the 1948 Summer Olympics, in the team’s first official game and was the flag-bearer of the Indian contingent.
Q85. Aximat Jar Xeral Xima is a landmark in Assamese Novel written by Kanchan Baruah and was published in 1945. But Kanchan Baruah is the pen name. What is the author’s real name?
Brajamohan Sarma
Bhubanmohan Baruah
Medini Choudhury
None of them
Correct option: (B) Bhubanmohan Baruah
Q86. The Tale of Nomadic Soul is the English translation of a famous Novel by Syed Abdul Malik. Which is that novel among the following?
Parashmoni
Adharshila
Aghari Atmar Kahini
Ruptirthar Yatri
Correct option: (C) Aghori Atmar Ka Hinee
The Tale of Nomadic Soul: Translated in English by R.P.Khaund from the Original Assamese Novel “Aghori Atmar Ka Hinee” by Malik Syed Abdul.
Q87. The novel Abhijatri is based on the life and achievements of
Q6. Lieutenant Commander Ms Karabi Gogoi is India’s first woman Navy Officer to be posted as defence attache in a foreign country. What is her basic expertise?
Submarine technology
Rafale fighter jet operations
Aeronautical training with reference to MIG-29
Warship construction and maintenance
Correct option: (D) Warships constructing and maintenance .
LT-Commander Karabi Gogoi is the first woman naval officer to be appointed as a defence attache to Indian missions abroad.
She has been selected as an assistant defence attache at the Indian Embassy in Moscow.
She is a naval engineer currently posted in Karwar Base in Coastal Karnataka.
Gogoi specializes in constructing and maintaining warships.
Gogoi is the third woman in the military to be appointed as a defence attache.
Wing Commander Anjali Singh from Indian Air Force is the first woman officer to be appointed as a defence attache.
Topic to focus : Important Persons in News
Our Opinion: Not a Grade 1 job standard question – Too specific about a personality in news (even if she is from Assam).
Q28. The 7 member committee for revitalisation of Assam economy in the aftermath of COVID-19 pandemic was headed by
M.P Bezbaruah
Subhash Chandra Das
Jayanta Madhav
Bhaskar Baruah
Correct option: (B) Shri Subhash Chandra Das
Advisory Committee for revitalization of economy of Assam
The Advisory Committee for revitalization of economy of Assam in the backdrop of the situation arising out of COVID-19 pandemic and consequent lockdown submitted its report to Chief Minister Sarbananda Sonowal.
The Advisory Committee with seven members, headed by retired IAS officer Subash Chandra Das, assessed the macro-economic and socio-economic impact as well as sector specific impact of COVID-19.
The committee made the sector specific recommendations on agriculture and allied sector, industries, trade and commerce, transport, tourism and hospitality, construction sector, employment including migrant labours.
The committee observed that as the economy needs to be made fully functional gradually, standard operating protocols, rules and guidelines need to be made for the sectors which are still closed with special emphasis on the opening of tourism and hospitality industry including hotels, restaurants with other personal care services and industries.
Q70. Which tribe of Assam organised the ‘Judima Festival’ in the middle of December 2020 to promote its art and culture, performing arts and ethnic practices?
The Bodo tribe
The Dimasa tribe
The Karbi tribe
The Mising tribe
Correct option: (B) Dimasa tribe
Haflong host the three-day ‘Judima Festival’ on sports and culture. The festival has been named after Judima, which is Dimasa tribals’ traditional brew. It is considered as one of the best traditional brews in the region and occupies an integral part of the social and cultural life of Dimasa tribals. The theme of the festival is to preserve, promote and nurture ethnic culture, music, dance, craft and folk art of Dimasa tribals residing in Dima Hasao district of Assam. The first edition of the festival, which was held in January 2016 saw the conglomeration of people of different ethnicities and strengthened the harmony among various tribes of the hill district. In addition, the initiative has been undertaken to promote tourism and establish Haflong into the tourism map of the Northeast.
Topic to focus : Assam Current Affairs
Q7. On 23rd of March 2019, the first Lokpal of India was appointed. Identify the first Lokpal from the options below:
Dr. Soumya Swaminathan
Reena Saud
N.R. Modi
Pinaki Chandra Ghose
Correct option: (D) Shri Pinaki Chandra Ghose
First Chairperson of the Lokpal is Shri Justice Pinaki Chandra Ghose, who is a former Judge of Supreme Court of India and was a sitting member of National Human Rights Commission.
(We updated his appointment in Current Affairs section of assamexam.com / fb page)
Q26. Name the Indian citizen who is also a Nobel laureate in Economics
Abhijit Bannerjee
Amartya Sen
Jagdish Bhagawati
Har Gobind Khurana
Correct option: (B) Amartya Sen
Abhijit Banerjee is American citizen.
Topic to focus : Prizes and Awards
Q27. Under which scheme given below, a programme has been launched by Govt of India to train youths on GST and related matters?
Skill India’s certified professionals to help GST implementation; Launches a 100- hour course under Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY)
Topic to focus : Govt Schemes & initiatives
Q53. The PM of India kickstarted the largest vaccination drive in Indian history against COVID-19 virus on
14th Jan, 2021
16th Jan, 2021
18th Jan, 2021
20th Jan, 2021
Correct option: (B) 16 January, 2021
(Very hard to remember start date of any campaign/drive/scheme)
Q54. The biggest vaccine manufacturer, by volume, in the world is
Codagenix
SpyBiotech
Serum Institute of India
Novavax
Correct option: (C) Serum Institute of India (SII)
Serum Institute of India (SII) is an Indian biotechnology and biopharmaceuticals company. It is the world’s largest manufacturer of vaccines located in the city of Pune, India and was founded by Cyrus Poonawalla in 1966.
Q55. Which city has been conferred the Swachh Survekshan, 2020 award as the cleanest city in the NorthEast Region and the State under Swachh Bharat Abhiyan?
Sivasagar
Jorhat
Tezpur
Lakhimpur
Correct option: (B) Jorhat
Jorhat has won the Swachh Survekshan 2020 award for the cleanest city in the NE region in the 50,000-1 lakh population category.
Q56. Which country on 19th July, 2020 launched its first mission to the Mars?
India
Malaysia
UAE
Iran
Correct option: (C) United Arab Emirates
The United Arab Emirates’ historic first mission to Mars is under way, after a successful lift-off in Japan. The Hope probe launched on an H2-A rocket from Tanegashima spaceport, and is now on a 500-million-km journey to study the planet’s weather and climate.
Q59. Against 232 electoral votes won by Donald Trump, how many electoral votes were bagged by Joe Biden in the November 2020 US elections.
300
306
310
315
Correct option: (B) 306 votes
Presidential Election Results: Biden Wins
Joseph R. Biden Jr. was elected the 46th president of the United States. Mr. Biden defeated President Trump after winning Pennsylvania, which put his total of Electoral College votes above the 270 he needed to clinch the presidency.
306 votes for Joseph R. Biden Jr.
232 votes for Donald J. Trump
Really? It’s a really poorly selected of Question.
Q60. The Nobel Prize in literature for the year 2020 was won by
Louise Gluck
Peter Handke
Alice Munro
Kazuo Ishiguro
Correct option: (A) Louise Gluck
2020 Nobel Prizes in Literature
American poet Louise Gluck has been awarded the 2020 Nobel Prize in Literature. The 10 million Swedish crown ($1.1m) prize is named after dynamite inventor and businessman Alfred Nobel and has been awarded since 1901 for achievements in science, literature and peace in accordance with his will. The Swedish Academy said Gluck was honoured “for her unmistakable poetic voice that with austere beauty makes individual existence universal”. Gluck previously won the Pulitzer Prize in 1993 for her collection The Wild Iris, and the National Book Award in 2014. A professor of English at Yale University, she “seeks the universal, and in this she takes inspiration from myths and classical motifs, present in most of her works”, the Academy said. It said her 2006 collection Averno was a “masterly” and “a visionary interpretation of the myth of Persephone’s descent into Hell in the captivity of Hades, the god of death”.
Q62. On 26th January 2020, we lost an all-time great basketball player who used to play for Los Angeles Lakers in the National Basketball Association for two decades. Who was he?
Micheal Jordan
Kevin Durant
Shaquille o’Neal
Kobe Bryant
Correct option: (D) Kobe Bryant
No comments about the Q selection, kiyahi kahe!
Q63. The FIFA World Cup 2022 will be hosted by
Argentina
Russia
Qatar
Germany
Correct option: (C) 2022 FIFA World Cup
It is scheduled to take place in Qatar from 21 November to 18 December 2022. This will be the first World Cup ever to be held in the Arab world, and it will be the second World Cup held entirely in Asia after the 2002 tournament in South Korea and Japan.
Topic to focus : Sports and Games
Q64. (B) Who among the following removed the pro-democracy books from its public libraries recently
China
Hong kong
Malaysia
Russia
Correct option: (B) Hong Kong
Q65. On 25th May, 2020, a few officers of Minneapolis Police mercilessly killed a black man who was charged of using counterfeit $20 note after buying cigarettes from a convenience store. The name of this man, whose death rocked the US political and social systems for a long time is
Mike Freeman
Thomas Lane
Derek Chauvin
George Floyd
Correct option: (D) George Floyd
Q66. The National Education Policy, 2020 was approved by the Union Cabinet on 29th July, 2020. The visionary policy that aims to touch upon every aspect of education from elementary to higher education will replace the
National Curriculum Framework, 2005
National Policy on Education, 1968
National Policy on Education, 1986
None of the above
Correct option: (C) National Policy on Education, 1986
Topic to focus : Govt Schemes & initiatives
Q67. On 9th November, 2019, the SC of India gave a verdict in the Ram Janambhoomi – Babri Masjid case, popularly called the Ayodhya verdict. Which HC referred this case to SC after 2010?
Lucknow HC
Allahabad HC
Delhi HC
Patna HC
Correct option: (B) Allahabad High Court
Topic to focus : Important Judgements/ Judiciary events
Q68. Three agricultural bills were signed by the President of India, after both houses of the Parliament has earlier passed on 27th September 2020. Which of the following is not part of the package?
The Farmers Produce Trade and Commerce(Promotion and Facilitation) Act
The Farmers (Empowerment and Protection) Agreement on Price Assurance and Farm Subsidies Act
The Essential Commodities (Amendment) Act
The Farmers Subsidy and Insurance Act
Correct option: (D) Farmers Subsidy and Insurance Act
The three bills, now Act, namely, the Farmers’ Produce Trade and Commerce (Promotion and Facilitation) Bill, 2020, Farmers (Empowerment and Protection) Agreement of Price Assurance, Farm Services Bill, 2020, and the Essential Commodities (Amendment) Bill, 2020 are meant to attract private investors and transform the deplorable state of Indian agriculture.
Topic to focus : Important Acts/Legislations
Q69. The CBSE partnered with which company to launch a curriculum on Digital Safety and Augmented Reality for students and educators?
Facebook
Google
Microsoft
Apple
Correct option: (A) Facebook
The Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) and Facebook have partnered to launch curriculum on digital safety and online well-being and Augmented Reality for students and educators.
Q71. During 27th September 2020 and 10th November 2020, a fierce battle was fought between two countries for the disputed territory of Nagorno-Karabakh. Which are these two countries?
Armenia-Iran
Armenia-Azerbaijan
Turkey-Iran
Azerbaijan-Russia
Correct option: (B) Armenia and Azerbaijan
Nagorno-Karabakh conflict is an ethnic and territorial conflict between Armenia and Azerbaijan over the disputed region of Nagorno-Karabakh.
The 2020 Nagorno-Karabakh war was an armed conflict between Azerbaijan, supported by Turkey, and the self-proclaimed Republic of Artsakh together with Armenia, in the disputed region of Nagorno-Karabakh and surrounding territories.
Difficulty Level: Tough (These events doesn’t get coverage in Indian media)
Q72. For the first time in India, a senior defence personnel in the newly created position of CDS was installed on 1st January 2020, who will be above the three chiefs of the three wings. Who is the first incumbent in this position?
General Bipin Rawat
General Bikram Singh
General Manoj Naravane
Admiral Karambir Singh
Correct option: (A) General Bipin Rawat
The Chief of Defence Staff of the Indian Armed Forces (CDS) is the head of the military staff of the Indian Armed Forces and the chief executive of the Department of Military Affairs. As the highest-ranking serving officer in the Indian Armed Forces, the CDS is the commanding officer and chairperson of the Joint Commanders and Staff Committee – making him the chief military adviser to the government of India and the Ministry of Defence. As the professional head of the armed forces, the Chief of Defence Staff is also aided by the newly formed office of Vice Chief of Defence Staff, the nation’s second highest ranking military officer, and the three chiefs of staff of the army, navy and air force, who are the leaders of each respective branch. The first and current CDS is General Bipin Rawat, who took office on 1 January 2020.
The CDS is a four-star officer selected from among the serving officers of the Indian Armed Forces. While being “first among equals” among the service chiefs, the CDS is a single-point military advisor to the defence minister.
Q78. The best passing out cadet of the National Defence Academy Khadakvasla (Pune) is conferred with
Chatrapati Shivaji Gold Medal
Lachit Borphukan Gold Medal
Rani Laxmibai Gold Medal
President’s Gold Medal
Correct option: (B) Lachit Borphukan Gold Medal (Best Cadet of NDA)
The best passing out cadet of National Defence Academy is conferred the Lachit Borphukan gold medal every year from 1999 The announcement of institution of the award by Indian Army chief General Malik on 25 April 1999 at the Delhi programme in presence of India’s vice-president and other dignitaries was the pivot to perpetuate the memory of Lachit Borphukan at the national level for the very first time. Battalion Cadet Adjutant Aaditya Udupa, 126th NDA Course,was awarded the medal for the Spring Term 2014 on 28 May 2014.
Q5. The term Black Revolution in the present context of India is associated with
Higher exportability of crude oil
Self dependence in the production of crude oil
Improvement in the quality of black soil
Self dependence in milk production
Correct option: (B) Self-dependence in the production of crude oil
Black Revolution: To increase petroleum production, the Government planned to accelerate the production of ethanol and to mix it up with petrol to produce biodiesel. Ethanol is a renewable source of energy and is a by-product of sugar production produced from molasses. The blending of ethanol with petrol has been practiced in the USA and Brazil for over 70 years. The blending of ethanol with transport fuels would provide better returns to farmers, supplement scarce resources of hydrocarbons, and be environment-friendly by reducing pollutants as it helps combustion.
Topic to focus : Economic revolutions
Q23. Which statement among the following is not true about GST council?
It is a statutory body
It is chaired by the PM of the country
It decides the rates of taxes on goods and services except some items
It was constituted by the President of India
Correct option: (B) is not true
Union Finance Minister is the Chairman of the GST Council
In true sense, this Question is wrong.
GST Council is a constitutional body under Article 279A. It makes recommendations to the Union and State Government on issues related to Goods and Service Tax and was introduced by the Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016.
The GST Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister and other members are the Union State Minister of Revenue or Finance and Ministers in-charge of Finance or Taxation of all the States.
Thus, both the option (A) and (B) are incorrect. But, if you have to choose one out of these, then its’ option (B).
Topic to focus : Economic bodies
Q24. The National Bamboo Mission strives to
(i) Increase the area under bamboo plantation in non-forest areas.
(ii) Rejuvenate the underdeveloped bamboo industry in India
(iii) Take over the sick paper mills in the country
(iv) Explore the export market for bamboo
(i) and (ii)
(i) and (iii)
(i), (ii) and (iii)
(i), (ii) and (iv)
Correct option: (A) (i) and (ii)
Objectives of the National Bamboo Mission
To increase the area under bamboo plantations in non-forest Government and private lands to supplement farm income and contribute towards resilience to climate change as well as the availability of quality raw material requirement of industries. The bamboo plantations will be promoted predominantly in farmers’ fields, homesteads, community lands, arable wastelands, and along irrigation canals, water bodies, etc.
To improve post-harvest management through the establishment of innovative primary processing units near the source of production, primary treatment and seasoning plants, preservation technologies, and market infrastructure.
To promote product development keeping in view market demand, by assisting R&D, entrepreneurship & business models at micro, small and medium levels and feed bigger industry.
To rejuvenate the underdeveloped bamboo industry in India.
To promote skill development, capacity building, awareness generation for development of bamboo sector from production to market demand.
To realign efforts so as to reduce dependency on import of bamboo and bamboo products by way of improved productivity and suitability of domestic raw material for industry, so as to enhance income of the primary producers.
Q25. Which one of the following correctly describes Angel Tax
A tax imposed on the super-rich people
A tax relief for doing social work
A type of capital gains tax imposed when startups receive funding, which is higher than the fair market value of shares sold.
A tax relief given to startups for doing innovative work
Correct option: (C) A type of capital gains tax imposed when startups receive funding, which is higher than the fair market value of shares sold.
Angel Tax is a term basically used to refer to the income tax payable on the capital raised by unlisted companies via the issue of shares through off-market transactions. Angel tax is levied on the capital raised via the issue of shares by unlisted companies from an Indian investor if the share price of issued shares is seen in excess of the fair market value of the company. The excess realization is considered as income and therefore, taxed accordingly.
Topic to focus : Taxation types
ECONOMY – Assam
Q29. We often hear the term ‘CTC’ in the context of Assam Tea. What does CTC stand for?
Crush, Tear, Curl
Curl, Tear, Crush
Check, thrash, curl
Check, tear, curl
Correct option: (A) Crush, tear, curl
Crush, tear, curl is a method of processing black tea in which the leaves are passed through a series of cylindrical rollers with hundreds of sharp teeth that crush, tear, and curl the tea into small, hard pellets. This replaces the final stage of orthodox tea manufacture, in which the leaves are rolled into strips. Tea produced using this method is generally called CTC tea or mamri tea.
The first CTC machine was brought into service in 1930 at the Amgoorie Tea Garden in Assam under the supervision of Sir William McKercher.
Topic to focus : Assam Tea
Q32. Which of the following became the first state/UT in India to present an e-budget and stream it live on social media as well?
Andhra Pradesh
Kerala
Assam
Delhi
Correct option: (C) Assam
Andhra Pradesh is the first state to present its budget in the digital format in 2016. However, Assam is the first state to present e-budget and stream it live on social media.
Q1. Which water resource project provides and extends benefits to Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujarat, Rajasthan?
Hirakud Dam Project
Sardar Sarovar Dam Project
Bhakra-Nangal Dam Project
Tehri Dam Project
Correct Option: (B) Sardar Sarovar Dam Project
The Sardar Sarovar Dam is a concrete gravity dam built on the Narmada river in Navagam near Kevadiya, Narmada District , Gujarat in India. Four Indian states, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra and Rajasthan, receive water and electricity supply from the dam.
Topic to focus: Important Dams in India
Q2. Which pair of extremely located Indian cities is connected by the East-West corridor?
SIlchar Porbandar
Mumbai Shillong
Nagpur Siliguri
Mumbai Kolkata
Correct Option: (A) Silchar – Porbandar
East-West Corridor is a 3,300 kilometres (2,100 mi) corridor via NH 27 (Porbandar–Rajkot-Samakhiali–Radhanpur–Kota–Jhansi–Kanpur-Lucknow–Ayodhya-Gorakhpur-Muzaffarpur–Darbhanga-Supaul-Purnia– Dalkhola-Kishanganj, Islampur–Sonapur- Ghoshpukur-Jalpaiguri Alipurduar- Bongaigaon – Nalbari Bijni–Guwahati–Nagaon–Dabaka–Silchar).
Topic to focus: Important Road, Rail & Infrastructure projects in India
Q33. The maximum number of individuals that can be supported by a given environment is called
Carrying capacity
Population size
Biotic potential
Environment Resistance
Correct Option: (A) Carrying capacity
The carrying capacity of an environment is the maximum population size of a biological species that can be sustained by that specific environment, given the food, habitat, water, and other resources available. The carrying capacity is defined as the environment’s maximal load, which in population ecology corresponds to the population equilibrium, when the number of deaths in a population equals the number of births (as well as immigration and emigration).
Topic to focus: Important Terminology in Ecology/Geography
Q34. Plants growing under direct sunlight are known as heliophytes. What do we call plants growing under shades?
Psammophytes
Sciophytes
Monocots
Dicots
Correct Option: (B) Sciophytes
Sciophytes are plants that last or thrive best at low light intensity. These plants have larger photosynthetic units than solar plants or heliophytes.
Sciophytes are shade-loving trees and plants. These plants have larger photosynthetic units than solar plants or heliophytes. Sciophytes are also known as photophobic plants and reach their saturation level in only 20% sunlight.
Shade-plants essentially follow strategies for the optimum use of available energy and energy conservation.
Topic to focus: Biodiversity – Plants/Animal types
Q35. Which among the following protocols/conventions is dedicated for protecting biodiversity from potential risks caused by Living Modified Organisms?
Cartagena Protocol
Nagoya Protocol
Bonn Convention
Vienna Convention
Correct Option: (A) Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety.
The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety is a legally binding global protocol that seeks to contribute to ensuring the safe transfer, handling and use of living modified organisms (LMOs) created through modern biotechnology.
Topic to focus: Important Conventions/Conference related to Environment issues
Q36. Which among the following types is a non-material pollution?
Air pollution
Water pollution
Thermal pollution
Soil pollution
Correct Option: (C) Thermal Pollution.
The Non-material Pollutions are of following types:
(i) Radiation Pollution.
(ii) Noise Pollution.
(iii) Thermal Pollution.
Topic to focus: Pollution types
Q38. Match the following persons and their activities in the field of environmental conservation and development:
List 1: List 2
Medha Patkar 1. Centre for Science and Environment
M.S Swaminathan 2. Narmada Bachao Andolan
Anil Agarwal 3. Ornithology and Conservation
Salim Ali 4. Rice Research and Biodiversity conservation.
a:2, b:4, c:1, d:3
a:2, b:1, c:3, d:4
a:2, b:4, c:3, d:1
a:3, b:1, c:4, d:2
Correct Option: (A) a 2, b 4, c 1, d 3
Medha Patkar, (born December 1, 1954, Bombay [now Mumbai], Maharashtra state, India), Indian social activist known chiefly for her work with people displaced by the Narmada Valley Development Project (NVDP), a large-scale plan to dam the Narmada River and its tributaries in the Indian states of Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, and Maharashtra.
Founder Anil Agarwal – Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) is a not-for-profit public interest research and advocacy organisation based in New Delhi, India. Established in 1980, CSE works as a think tank on environment-development issues in India, poor planning, climate shifts devastating India’s Sundarbans and advocates for policy changes and better implementation of the already existing policies.
Mankombu Sambasivan Swaminathan (born 7 August 1925) is an Indian geneticist and administrator, known for his role in India’s Green Revolution. Swaminathan has been called the Father of Green Revolution in India for his role in introducing and further developing high-yielding varieties of wheat in India. He is the founder of the MS Swaminathan Research Foundation.
Sálim Moizuddin Abdul Ali was an Indian ornithologist and naturalist. Sometimes referred to as the “Birdman of India”.
Topic to focus: Important Personalities related to Environment protection/conservation
Q39. All species of Lemur are endemic to
New Caledonia
Seychelles Islands
Galapagos Islands
Madagascar
Correct Option: (D) Madagascar
Lemurs are mammals of the order Primates, divided into 8 families and consisting of 15 genera and around 100 existing species. They are native only to the island of Madagascar.
Topic to focus: Species specific to regions
Q41. Among the marine ecosystems, the most species rich ecosystem is
Mangrove
Coral Reefs
Open Water
None of the Above
Correct Option: (B) Coral reefs
Topic to focus: Ecosytems
Q42. Biodiversity hotspots are among the richest and the most important ecosystems in the world. How many such hotspots are present in the world?
25
34
36
42
Correct Option: (C) 36
A biodiversity hotspot is a biogeographic region with significant levels of biodiversity that is threatened by human habitation.
To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot on Myers 2000 edition of the hotspot-map, a region must meet two strict criteria: it must contain at least 0.5% or 1,500 species of vascular plants as endemics, and it has to have lost at least 75% of its primary vegetation.[6] Around the world, 36 areas qualify under this definition.
Topic to focus: Biodiversity Hotspots & biodiversity conservation measures
Q57. The much-discussed Line of Actual Control is a disputed borderline between
India and China
China and Pakistan
India and Pakistan
China and Nepal
Correct Option: (A) India and China
Topic to focus: Important boundaries – Political Geography
Q58. The Paris Agreement of the UNFCCC is to limit the global warming well below
1 degree celsius
2 degree celsius
2.5 degree celsius
3 degree celsius
Correct Option: (B) 2 oC degree
The Paris Agreement is a legally binding international treaty on climate change. It was adopted by 196 Parties at COP 21 in Paris, on 12 December 2015 and entered into force on 4 November 2016. Its goal is to limit global warming to well below 2, preferably to 1.5 degrees Celsius, compared to pre-industrial levels.
Topic to focus: Important Conventions/Conference related to Environment issues
Q61. Sittwe Port in Myanmar which is being financed by India, is a part of which project
Kaladan Multi-modal Transit Transport Project
Sagarmala Project
Prayagraj-Haldia Inland waterway project
Talcher-Dhamra Inland Waterway Project
Correct Option: (A) Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project
The Kaladan Road Project is a US$484 million project connecting the eastern Indian seaport of Kolkata with Sittwe seaport in Rakhine State, Myanmar by sea. In Myanmar, it will then link Sittwe seaport to Paletwa in Chin State via the Kaladan river boat route, and then from Paletwa by road to Mizoram state in Northeast India.
Topic to focus: Current Affairs Topics w.r.t. Geography
Q93. The largest landlocked country in the world is
Republic of Congo
Mongolia
Bolivia
Kazakhstan
Correct Option: (D) Kazakhstan
Kazakhstan is the world’s largest landlocked country. A landlocked country is a country that has no direct access to the ocean.
Topic to focus: Countries/States facts
Q94. Find out which of the following pairs is/are correct:
Khamti: Arunachal Pradesh
Ao: Nagaland
Melacheri: Lakshadweep
Only 1
Only 2
1 and 2
All are correct
Correct Option: (D) All of the above
Topic to focus: States and native Tribes
Q95. Which country is the largest archipelago country in the world?
Philippines
Indonesia
Maldives
Malaysia
Correct Option: (B) Indonesia
Indonesia is made up of 17,508 islands of which about 6,000 islands inhabited by people. As the largest archipelago in the world, its territory covers an area of 1,919,440 square kilometers (735 355 square miles) and has one of the widest among the 16 countries in the world and is also the fourth most populous country with about 230 million inhabitants. The country has over 150 active volcanoes, including Krakatoa and Tambora.
Topic to focus: Countries/States facts
Q96. Which of the following rivers has the largest river basin in the Indian subcontinent?
Most of the Indus Basin lies in India and Pakistan, and only about 13 percent of its total catchment is in Tibet and Afghanistan.
So, Indus basin within Indian subcontinent = 10,13,985 Sq.km.
https://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/kegy103.pdf
The Indus System is one of the largest river basins of the world, covering an area of 11,65,000 sq. km (in India it is 321, 289 sq. km and a total length of 2,880
The Ganga basin extends over an area of 10,86,000km2.
The drainage area lying in India is 862,769 km2. 140,000 km2 (54,000 sq mi) in Nepal (13%), 46,000 km2 (18,000 sq mi) in Bangladesh (4%), and 33,000 km2 (13,000 sq mi) in China (3%)
Source: International Watercourses Law for the 21st Century: The Case of the River Ganges Basin Front Cover Sūryaprasāda Suvedī, Surya P. Subedi
So, Even if we deduct Basin area in China, 10,86,000-13000=10,73,000km2 in Indian subcontinent.
Topic to focus: Important Rivers
Q97. The boundary demarcation between India and Pakistan came into force on 17th August 1947. Which line divides the two countries?
Durand Line
Radcliffe Line
McMohan Line
Gilbert Line
Correct Option: (B) Radcliffe Line
The boundary demarcation line between India and Pakistan known as the Radcliffe Line came into force on 17 August 1947. The Radcliffe line is spread through the Rann of Kutch in Gujarat to the international border in Jammu in Jammu & Kashmir, dividing India and Pakistan into two different countries.
Topic to focus: Important boundaries – Political Geography
Q98. The islands of Seychelles are located in the
Arctic Ocean
Atlantic Ocean
Indian Ocean
Pacific Ocean
Correct Option: (C) Indian Ocean
Seychelles is located in the Somali Sea segment of the Indian Ocean, northeast of Madagascar.
Topic to focus: Countries/States facts
Q100. According to the most authentic geographical studies, when did life begin on earth?
4.2 million years ago
4.6 billion years ago
3.8 million years ago
3.8 billion years ago
Correct Option: (D) 3.8 billion
Earth formed around 4.54 billion years ago. The earth’s oceans were formed within 500 million years from the formation of the earth. Sometime around 3,800 million years ago, life began to evolve.
Topic to focus: Earth’s physical geography
GEOGRAPHY Assam
Q4. Which among the following cities is known as the Tea City of India?
Darjeeling
Dibrugarh
Siliguri
Nainital
Correct Option: (B) Dibrugarh
Dibrugarh is the largest tea exporting town in India. Nestled on the banks of the river Brahmaputra, Dibrugarh is the entry point to the districts of Tinsukia, Dibrugarh and Jorhat which produce tea in abundance. Around 50% of the total tea produced in Assam come from these three districts. Dibrugarh is aptly called the ‘Tea City of India’. The town and its nearby places are a home to Oil and Timber industries. The aroma of the tea gardens and the mesmerizing views of the Himalayas make the town a must-see destination. Take a stroll in the tea gardens and sip one of the finest tea in the world. Take some packets of the tea back home. Every time you have this tea you will relive your memories of Dibrugarh. The town got its name from Dibarumukh. ‘Dibaru’ is the name of a river and ‘mukh’ means mouth.
Topic to focus: Economic Centers of Assam
Q22. The four districts under the Bodoland Territorial Council (BTC) are
Kokrajhar, Barpeta, Chirang and Baksa
Kokrajhar, Baksa, Chirang and Udalguri
Kokrajhar, Baksa, Sonitpur and Udalguri
Baksa, Chirang, Udalguri and Nalbari
Correct Option: (B) Kokrajhar, Baksa, Chirang and Udalguri
The BTC consists of four contiguous districts — Kokrajhar, Baksa, Udalguri and Chirang — carved out of seven existing districts — Kokrajhar, Bongaigaon, Barpeta, Nalbari, Kamrup, Darrang and Sonitpur — an area of 8970 km2 comprising various protected tribal belts and blocks in Assam. Its establishment was under theass Amended Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
Topic to focus: Political Geography of Assam
Q37. The two UNESCO World Heritage sites in Assam are
Nameri National Park and Dibru-Saikhowa National Park
Kaziranga National Park and Manas National Park
Rajiv Gandhi Orang National Park and Hollongabar Gibbon WLS
Deepor Beel WLS and Dibru-Saikhowa National park
Correct Option: (B) Kaziranga NP and Manas NP
UNESCO World Heritage Sites in India
India now has 35 sites, including 27 cultural properties, seven natural sites and one mixed site, notified as World Heritage Sites.
UNESCO World Heritage Natural Sites in India
28.
Kaziranga National Park (1985)
Assam
29
Manas Wild Life Sanctuary (1985)
Assam
30.
Keoladeo National Park (1985)
Rajasthan
31.
Sunderban National Park (1987)
West Bengal
32.
Nanda Devi and Valley of Flowers National Parks (1988, 2005)
Uttarakhand
33.
Western Ghats (2012)
Karnataka, Kerala, Maharashtra,Tamil Nadu
34.
Great Himalayan National Park (2014)
Himachal Pradesh
35.
Khangchendzonga National Park (KNP) (2016)* [Mixed site]
Sonai Rupai Wildlife Sanctuary is a protected area located in the state of Assam in India. This wildlife sanctuary covers 175 km2. It is located along the foothills of the Great Himalayan Range. The area was declared as a sanctuary in 1998.
Topic to focus: Biodiversity conservation in Assam – National Parks, Wildlife Sanctuaries etc.
Q3. As per the 2011 census, how many gaon panchayats are there in Assam?
2005
2100
2202
2305
Correct Option: (C) 2202
Assam is administratively divided into 33 district with 80 sub-division, 219 Development Blocks and 2202 Gaon Panchayats, out of which 3 districts with 4 sub-divisions & 16 Development Blocks are under three hill districts of Karbi-Along, East Karbi-Along & Dima Hasao. Further, four district with eight sub-divisions are under Bodoland Territorial Council (BTC) area viz Kokrajhar, Chirang, Baska & Udalguri. The Brahmaputra valley consists of North Bank Plains Zone (NBPZ), Upper Brahmaputra valley Zone (UBVZ), Central Brahmaputra valley Zone (CBVZ) and Lower Brahmaputra Valley Zone (LBVZ), whereas the Barak Valley Zone mainly consists of plain area of three districts, viz. Cachar, Karimganj & Hailakandi.
Q9. Which of the following Articles empower the Governor to appoint the Chairman and other members of a State Public Service Commission?
Article 314
Article 315
Article 316
Article 317
Correct Option: (C) Article 316
Article 316 in The Constitution Of India: The Chairman and other members of a Public Service Commission shall be appointed, in the case of the Union Commission or a Joint Commission, by the President, and in the case of a State Commission, by the Governor of the State.
Topic to focus: UPSC & State Public Service Commission
Q10. Who was the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha of Indian Parliament?
Hukum Singh
K.S. Hegde
M.A. Ayyangar
G.V. Mavalankar
Correct Option: (D) G.V Mavalankar
Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar (27 November 1888 – 27 February 1956) popularly known as Dadasaheb was an independence activist, the President (from 1946 to 1947) of the Central Legislative Assembly, then Speaker of the Constituent Assembly of India, and later the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha, the lower house of the Parliament of India. His son Purushottam Mavalankar was later elected to the Lok Sabha twice from Gujarat.
Topic to focus: Origin of Indian Parliament
Q11. Who was India’s Prime Minister when the government introduced the modern Panchayati Raj system by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act and gave it constitutional status?
P.V. Narasimha Rao
Vishwanath Pratap Singh
Atal Bihari Vajpayee
Chandra Shekhar
Correct Option: (A) P.V. Narasimha Rao
It was under P.V. Narasimha Rao that the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, better known as the Panchayati Raj Act, became effective.
Topic to focus: Important Constitutional Amendments
Q12. Which among the following schedules of Indian Constitution is related to division of powers between Union and States?
Schedule VIII
Schedule VII
Schedule XI
Schedule XIVI
Correct Option: (B) Schedule VII
The Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India defines and specifies allocation of powers and functions between Union & States. It contains three lists; i.e. 1) Union List, 2) State List and 3) Concurrent List.[1] Originally there was 97 subjects in union list but now it is 100 subjects in union list. And in state list there was 66 subjects but now it is 61 subjects. And in concurrent list there was 47 subjects but now it iss 52 subjects in concurrent list.
Topic to focus: Federalism & Centre-State relations
Q14. When did the 1st amendment of the Indian Constitution take place?
June 18, 1951
June 18, 1952
July 18, 1953
July 18, 1954
Correct Option: (A) 18 June 1951
The Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951, enacted in 1951, made several changes to the Fundamental Rights provisions of the Indian constitution. It provided means to restrict freedom of speech and expression, validation of zamindari abolition laws, and clarified that the right to equality does not bar the enactment of laws which provide “special consideration” for weaker sections of society.
The formal title of the amendment is the Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951. It was moved by the then Prime Minister of India, Jawaharlal Nehru, on 10 May 1951 and enacted by Parliament on 18 June 1951.
Topic to focus: Important Constitutional Amendments
Q16. Under Art 368, the Parliament has no power to repeal fundamental rights because they are
Integral part of basic structure of the constitution.
Integral part of human rights
Enshrined under Part III
All of the above
Correct Option: (A) Integral part of basic structure of the Constitution
In the landmark Kesavananda Bharati case (1973, while defining the concept of the basic structure doctrine, the SC held that although no part of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights, was beyond the Parliament’s amending power, the “basic structure of the Constitution could not be abrogated even by a constitutional amendment.”
Topic to focus: Constitution of India
Q17. The concept of dual citizenship in the Union of India to the ‘Persons of Indian Origin’ belonging to some specific countries was recommended by
Ashok Mehta Committee
L.M. Singhvi Committee
Rajamannar Committee
Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
Correct Option: (B) L. M Singhvi Committee
Topic to focus: Citizenship provision
Q18. Equal opportunity in matters of employment is guaranteed under Article?
14
15
16
17
Correct Option: (C) Article 16
Article 16 is provided to all citizens of the country. Article 16 covers the following aspects:-
There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the state.
No discrimination on basis of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, residence or any of them in respect of office/employment under the state.
Parliament can make laws in regard to class/classes of employment or appointment of office prior to such employment or appointment.
State can make provision for reservation of appointment or post in favour of any backward class.
State can also do a reservation for promotion and consequential seniority of SC, STs.
State can make the separate classes of vacancies from the unfilled vacancies of year for determining the ceiling of 50% of reservation on total vacancy.
Topic to focus: Important Articles of the Indian Constitution
Q19. Which of the following Fundamental Rights are available only to citizens of India?
Right to equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
Equality before Law
Right to freedom of religion
Right to freedom under Article 19
1, 2, 3 and 4
1 and 4
1, 2 and 3
2 and 4
Correct Option: (B) 1 and 4
Fundamental rights available to both citizens and foreigners except enemy aliens
Article 14 – Equality before the law and equal protection of laws.
Article 20 – Protection in respect of conviction for offences.
Article 21 – Protection of life and personal liberty.
Article 21A – Right to elementary education.
Article 22 – Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases.
Article 23 – Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour.
Article 24 – Prohibition of employment of children in factories etc.
Article 25 – Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion.
Article 26 – Freedom to manage religious affairs.
Article 27 – Freedom from payment of taxes for promotion of any religion.
Article 28 – Freedom from attending religious instruction or worship in certain educational institutions.
Fundamental Rights Available Only to Citizens of India
Article 15 – Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
Article 16 – Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
Article 19 – Protection of six rights related to freedom – (a) of speech and expression; (b) to assemble peaceably and without arms; (c) to form associations or unions; (d) to move freely throughout the territory of India; (e) to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India; and (f) to practice any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.
Article 29 – Protection of language, script and culture of minorities.
Article 30 – Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions.
As you know, one of the objectives declared in the Preamble is “to secure to all
its citizens liberty of belief, faith and worship”. Since India is a multi-religion country, where Hindus, Muslims, Sikhs, Christians and many other communities live together, the Constitution declares India as a ‘secular state’. It means that Indian State has no religion of its own. But it allows full freedom to all the citizens to have faith in any religion and to worship, the way they like. But this should not interfere with the religious beliefs and ways of worship of other fellow beings. This freedom is available to the foreigners as well.
Q20. In the Indian Constitution, the method of election of the President is taken from which country?
Q21. As per the tripartite Assam Accord signed among GoI, Assam Govt and leaders of Assam agitation on 15th August 1985, what was set up as the cutoff date for detection and deportation of illegal migrants in Assam?
Q30. The Department of Act East Policy Affairs under the government of Assam was set up in
2012
2015
2017
2020
Correct Option: (C) The Department of Act East Policy Affairs (AEPA) of the Assam Government has been set up in 2017.
Topic to focus: Policies/Legislations wrt Assam & Northeast
Q13. The concepts of ‘Integral Humanism’ and ‘Antyodaya’ were associated with which of the following visionary thinkers of India?
Shyama Prasad Mukherjee
Mahatma Gandhi
Deendayal Upadhyay
Atal Bihari Vajpayee
Correct Option: (C) Deendayal Upadhyaya
Integral humanism was a set of concepts drafted by Deendayal Upadhyaya as a political program and adopted in 1965 as the official doctrine of the Jan Sangh and later BJP.
The Assam Public Service Commission will hold the Preliminary Examination of the Combined Competitive Examination, 2022 for screening candidates for the Main Examination for recruitment to the services/posts as per the actual number of vacancies as shown below, in accordance with the Assam Public Services Combined Competitive Examination Rules, 1989 (as amended till 2022).
Assistant Research Officer, Minorities Development Board – 1 Post
Research Assistant, Irrigation- 3 Posts
Assistant Public Relation Officer, Irrigation- 1 Post
Assistant Research Assistant, Irrigation- 1 Posts
Registrar, Industrial Tribunal – 1 Post
Research Assistant, Transport Survey – 1 Post
Assam Urban Administrative Service (Executive Officer – Jr. Grade II) – 103 Post
———————————– Total = 913 Posts (245 posts Reserve for Women & 35 posts Reserved for PWD )
CENTRES FOR THE PRELIMINARY & MAIN EXAMINATION:
(A) The centres for the Combined Competitive (Preliminary) Examination are BARPETA, BONGAIGAON, BISWANATH CHARIALI, DHEMAJI, DHUBRI, DIBRUGARH, DIPHU, GOALPARA, GOLAGHAT, GUWAHATI, HAFLONG, HAMREN, HATSINGIMARI, HOJAI, JORHAT, KAJALGAON, KARIMGANJ, KOKRAJHAR, MAJULI, MANGALDOI, MORIGAON, MUSHALPUR, NAGAON, NALBARI, NORTH LAKHIMPUR, SILCHAR, SIVASAGAR, SONARI, TEZPUR, TINSUKIA AND UDALGURI.
(B) The Combined Competitive (Main) Examination will be held in GUWAHATI only.
(C) The exact dates for Preliminary and Main Examination respectively will be notified in due course.
The tentative date for Preliminary Examination is 26th March, 2023 (Sunday). Main Examination is tentatively scheduled in July/August,2023
(D) The centres and the date (even after it is notified) for holding examination may, however be changed by the Commission at its discretion owing to unforeseen exigencies. Candidates admitted to the examination will be informed of the time-table and place or places of examination. The candidates should note that no request for change of centre will be granted.
(xxvi) Research Assistant, Transport Survey PB-3, Pay scale 2 2 ,OOO / – -97,0O0 /- Grade Pay 9,100/-
(xxvii) Assam Urban Administrative Service (Executive Officer – Jr. Grade II)Pay scale 30,000/- 1,10,000/-, Grade Pay 12,700/-, PB-4
HOW TO APPLY
CANDIDATES ARE REQUIRED TO APPLY FOR THE PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION THROUGH THE WEBSITE “https://apscrecruitment.in” ONLY. NO OTHER MODE FOR SUBMISSION OF APPLICATION IS ALLOWED.
A) The Online Applications can be filled up from 21-01-2023 to 10-02-2023 till 5:00 PM after which the link will be disabled. Last date for payment of prescribed fee is 12-02-2023 till 5,00 P,M.
B. FEES FOR PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION: Under the Digital India initiative by Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), Government of India, APSC has decided to launch its Online Recruitment portal with the help of CSC-SPV, a MeitY approved organization, which will charge a processing fee of Rs. 40.00/- + 18% tax = Rs.47.20/- from each candidate.
(a) Nationality: The candidate must be an Indian citizen. (b) Age: The candidate should not be less than 21 years and more than 38 years of age on 01.01.2022.
Relaxation: The upper age limit is relaxable (i) By 5 years for SC/STP/STH candidates i.e. upto 43 years. (ii) By 3 years for OBC/MOBC candidates i.e. upto 41 years as per Govt. Notification No. ABP.6/2016/9 dated Dispur the 25th April, 2018. (iii) For persons with Benchmark Disabilities (PWBD) by 10 years irrespective of SC/ST/OBC and General Category of candidates as per Govt. Notification No. ABP 144/95/121 dated Dispur the 28th October, 2015.
(c) The candidate must hold a Degree from any of the Universities incorporated by an Act of Central or State Legislature in India or other educational institutions established by an Act of Parliament or declared to be deemed as a University under Section 3 of the University Grants Commission Act, 1956 or possess such qualification as may be declared equivalent by the Government. (d) A candidate should be ab]e to speak Assamese or other official language or associate official languages of the State or any of the tribal languages of the State. (e) A candidate should be registered in a District Employment 0ffice of Assam. (f) A candidate must be an original inhabitant of Assam. (g) Candidates must possess the prescribed qualification on the date of submission of their applications. (h) Persons with Benchmark Disabilities should ascertain the post for which a particular category of disability is entitled for reservation as per the advertisement and should apply/opt for the preference accordingly at the time of filling up the forms for Main Examination. (i) As per Govt. notification no.ABP.69/2019/17, dated 06/11/2019 candidates have to submit a declaration regarding “The Small Family Norms” in Form-A at the time of applying for the C.C. (Mains) Examination.
The Combined Competitive Examination consists of two successive stages:- (i) The Preliminary Examination (Objective Type) (ii) The Main Examination (written & interview)
(I). PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION
The Preliminary Examination will consist of two papers of objective type multiple choice questions of two hours duration each.
Paper-I – General studies I – 200 Marks – 2 hrs Time (Objective type multiple choice question paper)
Paper-II – General Studies II – 200 Marks – 2 hrs Time (Objective type multiple choice question paper)
Total marks = 400
The questions will be of objective type with multiple choices
Candidates will have to use ONLYBLACK / BLUE BALL PEN.
This Examination is meant to serve as a screening test only.
The marks obtained in the Preliminary Examination by the Candidates who are declared qualified for admission to the Main Examination will not be counted for determining the final order of merit.
There will be negative marking for incorrect answers as detailed below: (i) There are four alternatives for the answers to every question. A penalty of one-fourth (.25) of the total marks assigned to that question will be deducted for each wrong answers marked by a candidate. (ii) If a candidate marksmore than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happen to be correct and there will be same penalty as above for that question. (iii) If a question is left blank i.e no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.
The General Studies II paper of the Combined Competitive (Prelim) Examination will be a qualifying paper with minimum qualifying marks fixed at 33% . The Commission will draw a list of candidates to be qualified for Combined Competitive (Main) Examination based on the criterion of minimum qualifying marks of 33% in General Studies Paper-II of Combined Competitive (Prelim) Examination and total qualifying marks of General Studies paper- I of Combined Competitive (Prelim) Examination as may be determined by the Commission.
The candidates may refer to the Assam Public Services Combined Competitive Examination (Amendment) Rules, 2019 for syllabi of General Studies I & General Studies II.
The Main Examination consists of (A) Written Examination and (B) Interview Test.
(A) WRITTEN EXAMINATION
a) On the results of the Preliminary Examination, the number of candidates to be admitted to the written part of the Main Examination will be 11 to 12 times the number of vacancies notified for each category. The selection will be strictly on the basis of merit adhering to the norms of Vertical and Horizontal Reservation as per prescribed law in force. b) The written examination shall consist of six papers of conventional essay type/objective type with limited words. Marks obtained in Interview for personality Test shall be counted for ranking. The written examination will consist of the following papers:
Sl. No
Papers
Type of Paper
Marks
Duration in Hours
1
Paper 1
Essay
250
3 Hrs
2
Paper 2 to 6
General Studies
250 per paper
3 Hrs per paper
5
Interview Test (After qualifying in written test)
275
–
TOTAL
1775
A candidate shall be allowed to write his/her answer papers in English or Assamese language.
(B) INTERVIEW TEST: 275 Marks
On the results of the written part of the Main Examination the number of candidates to be called for interview will be about thrice the number of vacancies advertised. The selection will be strictly on the basis of merit adhering to the norms of Vertical and Horizontal Reservation as per prescribed law in force.
The candidates will be interviewed by a board that will have before them a record of his/her career. He/She will be asked questions on matters of general interest. The objective of the interview is to assess the personal suitability of the candidate for a career in public service by a board of competent and unbiased observers. The test is intended to judge the mental caliber of a candidate. In broad terms this is really an assessment of not only his intellectual qualities but also social traits and his interest in current affairs. Some of the qualities to be judged are mental alertness, critical powers of assimilation, clear and logical exposition, balance of judgment, variety and depth of interest, ability for social cohesion and leadership, intellectual and moral integrity.
The technique of the interview is not that of a strict cross-examination but of a natural, though directed and purposive conversation which is intended to reveal the mental qualities of the candidate.
The interview test is not intended to be a test either of the specialized or general knowledge of the candidates which has been already tested through their written papers. Candidates are expected to have taken an intelligent interest not only in their special subjects of academic study but also in the events which are happening around them both within and outside their own State or Country as well as in modern currents of thought and in new discoveries which should rouse the curiosity of well educated youth.
The interview, however, will not have any qualifying marks. The marks scored at the interview will be added to the marks scored in the written Examination (Main) and the ranking of the candidates will be determined on the basis of the total marks obtained.
The Commission shall recommend exactly the same number of candidates for different posts as notified. The candidates will be allotted cadre strictly on the basis of merit cum preferences opted by candidates in their applications for the Main Examination. The Commission shall not recommend a candidate for a post which he/she has not opted for.
e-ADMISSION CERTIFICATES (ADMIT CARD)
(a) Admission certificate indicating the eligible candidate’s Roll no., venue and programme of the exam will be uploaded in the Commission’s website, for appearing in the Preliminary/Main examination.
(b) The mere fact that a certificate of admission has been issued will not imply that his/her candidature has been finally cleared by the Commission. Candidates may note that the Commission takes up the verification of eligibility conditions only after the candidates have qualified for the Main Examination.
(c) Candidates must produce a photo identity proof of any of the following in the examination hall: (i) Pan Card (ii) Driving Licence (iii) Voters ID card (iv) Bank Passbook containing photograph (v) ID Card issued by the educational Institution where he/she is studying presently (vi) ID card issued by Government or public sector undertaking.
(d) The Commission reserves the right to cancel the candidature of any candidate as and when any ineligibility condition is detected. If any information declared by the candidate is found to be false at any stage; the candidate will be penalized as per prevailing law/rules.
(e) The decision of the Commission as to the eligibility or otherwise of a candidate for admission to the examination shall be final.
NOTE: This page is for informative purpose only, APSC is the final deciding authority of any information regarding this exam.
