APSC Prelims 2023 – CSAT General Studies GS-2 Paper 2 Question Paper & Answer Key | Download PDF

APSC Prelims 2023 – CSAT General Studies GS-2 Paper 2 Question Paper & Answer Key | Download PDF

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APSC prelims questions

 

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APSC Prelims 2023 – General Studies (GS) Paper 1 Solved | Download PDF

APSC Prelims 2023 – General Studies (GS) Paper 1 Solved | Download PDF

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Previous Years APSC Prelim Question Papers (GS & CSAT)

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Q1. Chief Minister’s Atmanirbhar Asom Abhijan Portal was launched on 23rd September, 2023. To qualify for financial assistance of Rs. 5.0 lakh under the scheme, which of the following criteria are necessary?

  1. The applicant must be a permanent resident of Assam.
  2. The applicant must not be older than 28 years of age .
  3. The applicant must have a bank account opened before 31st December, 2023.
  4. The applicant must have a professional degree in engineering/medical/dental/veterinary/fishery/agriculture, etc. 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. I, III and IV only
  4. I and IV only

 

C. I, III and IV only

 

Q2. Which of the following is/are correct about a Bad Bank?

  1. A bank that is insolvent. 
  2. A bank that has become bankrupt.
  3. A bank whose NPAs have crossed the tolerable limit
  4. A bank set up to buy bad loans and other illiquid holdings of another financial institution. 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. III only
  4. IV only

 

D. IV only

 

Q3. Pick up the wrong statement/statements regarding an interim budget in India.

  1. It provides continuity in governance during the transition period between the governments.
  2. The government cannot propose major taxes or policy reforms in the Budget.
  3. The Economic Survey is presented one day before the presentation of the Interim Budget.
  4. It is an authorization for incurring specific expenditure necessary until a new government is formed. 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. I only
  2. I and II
  3. III only
  4. II and IV only

(Our APSC Prelim Test Series 2023 – Test 5 ->Q24. partially matched)

C. III only

 

Q4. INS Imphal was declared to the Indian Navy on 20th October, 2023. Which of the following statements about INS Imphal is/are not correct?

  1. It is a Visakhapatnam-class stealth guided missile destroyer of the Indian Navy.
  2. It was constructed by the Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Ltd. 
  3. It was Commissioned into the Indian Navy  in December 2023.
  4. The ship boasts 100% indigenous content. 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. I only
  2. II and III only
  3. III and IV only
  4. IV only

D. IV only

(Topic covered in our Current Affairs 2023 Module,  part of APSC Prelim Test Series 2023)

 

Q5. The ‘HUMP WWII Museum’ was opened in Arunachal Pradesh in 2023. Which of the following statements are correct pertaining to the Museum?

  1. The Museum has been set up in the town of Pasighat. 
  2. The Hump refers to the dangerous aerial route over the ice covered eastern Himalayan mountains. 
  3. The dangerous route was used to supply British troops battling Japanese Forces after they cut off the overland route through Burma (Myanmar).
  4. The route also earned the moniker ‘Aluminium Trail’ Because of the number of crashes. 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. I and II only
  2. I and IV only
  3. I, II and III only
  4. I, II and IV only

D. I, II and IV only

 

Q6. Which of the following lists is correct carrying the names of the five-member bench of the Supreme Court that passed the Ayodhya Verdict on 9th November, 2029? 

  1. Justice Ranjan Gogoi, Justice Ashok Bhushan, Justice Sharad A. Bobde, Justice D. Y. Chandrachud, Justice S. Abdul Nazeer
  2. Justice Ranjan Gogoi, Justice Ashok Bhushan, Justice Sharad A. Bobde, Justice D. Y. Chandrachud, Justice U. U. Lalit
  3. Justice Ranjan Gogoi, Justice Ashok Bhushan, Justice Sharad A. Bobde, Justice D. Y. Chandrachud, Justice Surya Kant
  4. Justice Ranjan Gogoi, Justice Mohammad Hidayatullah, Justice Sharad A.  Bobde, Justice D. Y. Chandrachud, Justice S. Abdul Nazeer

A. Justice Ranjan Gogoi flanked by (L-R) Justice Ashok Bhushan, Justice Sharad Arvind Bobde, Justice Dhananjaya Y Chandrachud, Justice S Abdul Nazeer


Q7. Match following Wildlife Sanctuaries (WLS) of Assam (List-I) with the districts where these are located (List-II)

List-I                                                             List-II

  1. Bordoibam Bilmulkh WLS          1. Lakhimpur
  2. Pabha WLS                                      2. Dhemaji
  3. Pani Dining WLS                            3. Sivasagar
  4. Gibbon WLS                                    4. Jorhat

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

C. a2, b1, c3, d4

 

Q8. Consider the following statements regarding the 2024 Grammy Awards:

(iI Tabla maestro Zakir Hussain won 3 Grammys

(ii) Flautist Rakesh Chaurasia won 2 Grammys

(iii) Singer Shankar Mahadevan, violinist L. Subramaniam won 1 Grammy each

(iv) The fusion group ‘Shakti’ won the 2024 Grammy Award for the best global music album for ‘This Moment’.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

  1. (i) and (ii) only
  2. (iv) only
  3. (i), (ii) and (iv) only
  4. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(Our APSC Prelim Test Series 2023 – Test 12 ->Q86. matched)

C. (i), (ii) and (iv) only

Q9. Consider the following pairs:

(i) Mahamaya Temple                          : Dhubri

(ii) Dhekiakhowa Bornamghar         : Golaghat

(iii) Malini Than                                      : Dhemaji

(iv) Deopani Temple                            :Jorhat

Select the correctly matched pairs using the codes given below.

B. (i) and (iii) only

 

Q10. Match following personalities (List-I) with the awards/recognitions they has been conferred with (List-II):

List-I                                                    List-II

  1. Hemoprova Chutia            1. Awarded Padma Shri in 2023
  2. Jintimoni Nakul Kalita      2. First female participant from Assam in the T20 Asia Cup hosted in Hong Kung
  3. Uma Chetry                         3. Indian cricket player from Assam in the Asian Games held in Hangzhou, China
  4. Pratima Nandi Narzary    4. Winner of Sahitya Akademi Bal Puraskar 2023

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A. A1, b2, c3, d4

(Our APSC Prelim Test Series 2023 – Test 8 ->Q18. matched)
(Topic covered in our Current Affairs 2023 Module,  part of APSC Prelim Test Series 2023)

 

Q11. India breached the 100-medal mark for the first time in the Asian Games at Hangzhou in China in 2023. Select the correct pair of gold and silver medals from the options given below:

  1.  Gold-24, Silver-34
  2.  Gold-28, Silver-38
  3. Gold-28, Silver-32
  4. Gold-22, Silver-38

B. Gold-28, Silver-38

India’s Achievement in 19th Asian Games 2023 – 107 Medals & Records

 

Q12. The operation to evacuate the Indian citizens from Israel during the 2023 Israel-Hamas war is names as

  1. Operation Rahat
  2. Operation Ajay
  3. Operation Devi Shakti
  4. Operation Kaveri

(Our APSC Prelim Test Series 2023 – Test 12 ->Q71 matched)

B. Operation Ajay

 

Q13. Match the following historical/tourist places of Assam (List-I) with the corresponding districts where these are located (List-II):

List-I                                                    List-II

  1. Ghuguha Dol                                1. Darrang
  2. Patharughat                                  2. Dhemaji
  3. Sankhadevi Archeological Site 3. Nagaon
  4. Baduli Khurung                            4. Hojai

(B) a2, b1, c4, d3

Patharughatar Rann of 1894 or Patharughat massacre (History of Assam)

 

Q14. Read the following statements regarding ‘Blockchain’. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(i) It is a method of recording information that makes it impossible or difficult for the system to be changed, hacked, or manipulated.

(ii) This method can ensure secure transactions, lower compliance expenses and accurate data transfer processing.

(iii) This method is used only in financial service industry.

(iv) Fuji Nakamon is the name used by the presumed pseudonymous person or persons who developed Bitcoin.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. (i) only
  2. (i) and (ii) only
  3. (i), (i) and (iii) only
  4. (i), (ii) and (iv) only

( Daily Current Affairs Qs in Facebook page: Adhikary Education | Silchar (facebook.com) matched)

B. (i) and (ii) only

 

Q15. Who among the following was awarded the Siu-Ka-Pha Award, 2023?

(A) Dhirendra Nath Bezbaruah

(B) Pranab Jyoti Deka

(C) Nandeswar Daimari

(D) Ranjan Gogoi

 

(A) Dhirendra Nath Bezbaruah

 

Q16. Who among the following are Arjuna Award winners from Assam?

(i) Bhogeswar Baruah

(ii) Monalisa Baruah Mehta

(iii) Amlan Borgohain

(iv) Jayanta Talukdar

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(C) (i), (ii) and (iv) only

(D) (i) and (iii) only

 

(C) (i), (ii) and (iv) only

 

Q17. The Mukhyamantn Mahila Udyamita Abhiyan (MMUA) was announced in January 2024. What are the eligibility criteria for the scheme?

(i) All women self-help groups of Assam are eligible for the scheme.

(ii) If the applicants have girl children, they must be enrolled in school

(iii) The trees the applicants planted under the Amrit Briksha Andolan should be surviving.

(iv) General and OBC categories applicants cannot have more than three children.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(B) (i), (ii) and (iv) only

(C) (ii) and (iv) only

(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only

(Our APSC Prelim Test Series 2023 – Test 5 ->Q1 partially matched)

(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only

 

Q18. If an individual is awarded with a gold medal called Lachit Borphukan Medal as the best Army Cadet, where has he/she passed out from?

(A) Indian Military Academy (IMA)

(B) National Defence Academy (NDA)

(C) Rashtriya Indian Military College (RIMC)

(D) Army Cadet College (ACC)

 

(B) National Defence Academy (NDA)

 

Q19. Arrange the following Speakers of the Assam Legislative Assembly in the chronological order:

(i) Pulakesh Baruah

(ii) Kuladhar Chaliha

(iii) Debeswar Sarma

(iv) Mahendra Mohan Choudhury


Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (iii)-(iv)-(ii)-{i)

(B) (iv)-(iii)-(ii)-(i)

(C) (iii)-(ii)-(iv)-(i)

(D) (iv)-(iii)-(i)-(ii)

 

(C) (iii)-(ii)-(iv)-(i)

 

Q20. Arrange, in descending order, the population in Assam by languages as per the Census of India, 2011.

(A) Assamese, Mising, Bengali, Bodo

(B) Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Mising

(C) Assamese, Bodo, Mising, Bengali

(D) Assamese, Mising, Bodo, Bengali

 

(B) Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Mising

Assam Demography in Census 2011 – Population, Sex Ratio, Literacy rate Highlights & figures

Q21. Which of the following is/are NOT the work/works of Madhavdev?

(i) Nam Ghosa

(ii) Bhakti Ratnavali

(iii) Bhumi Letowa

(iv) Balichalan

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. (i) only
  2. (ii) and (iv) only
  3. (iv) only
  4. (iii) and (iv) only

 

C. (iv) only

 

Q22. Match the following places of Assam (List-I) with the districts where these are located (List-II):

List-I                            List-II

  1. Titabar           1. Sivasagar
  2. Doulasal        2. Barpeta
  3. Nazira            3. Jorhat
  4. Sarthebari    4. Nalbari

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(D) a3, b4, c1, d2

 

Q23. Which of the following names of the Agroclimatic Zones of Assam is/are NOT correct?

(i) Upper Brahmaputra Valley

(ii) North Central Brahmaputra Valley

(iii) Barail Zone

(iv) Hill Zone

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) {i) only

(B) iii) and {iv) only

(C) {ii) only

(D) (ii) and (iii) only

 

(D) (ii) and (iii) only

 

Q24. Which of the following statements are correct about the Women’s Reservation Bill, 2023?

(i) The Women’s Reservation Bill, 2023 proposes 33% reservation for women in the Lok Sabha and the Assemblies of States and National Capital Territory of Delhi.

(ii) Similar reservation will also be provided within the seats reserved for SC and ST.

(ii) The Bill proposes that the reservation will continue for 25 years.

(iv) The Bill which reserves 33% of seats for women in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies includes the quota for women from the OBCs.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B) (i) and [iii) only

(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(D) (i), (i), (iii) and (iv)

 

(A) (i) and (ii) only

 

Q25. Match the following schemes (List-I) with the correct objectives (List-II):

List-I                                                    List-II

a. Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao 1. It gives important to the nutritional level of adolescent girls, pregnant women, lactating mothers and children of 0-6 years of age.

b. Baalika Samriddhi Yojana 2. It offers free course materials/online resources such as video study materials, class materials for girl students in XI and XII standards.

c. CBSE Udaan Scheme 3. To provide fiscal support to young girls and their mothers who belong to BPL category

d. Poshan Abhiyan 4. Removing or preventing gender bias selective abortions for the girl child

 

(A) a 4             b 3       c 2       d 1

 

Q26. Match the following Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) (List-l) with the States/Union Territories they belong to (List-Il) ;

List—1                                     List—II

a. Maram 1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands

b. Jarawa 2. Tripura

c. Birhor 3. Manipur

d. Reang 4. Odisha

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

 

(B)       a 3         b 1          c 4          d 2

 

Q27. Which of the following statements are correct about the Scheduled Castes in Assam as per the 2011 Census?

(i) Scheduled Caste population constitutes about 7-15% of the total population of Assam.

(ii) 16 sub-castes are recognized as SCs in Assam, such as Basfor, Bhuimali, Bania, Dhupi, Dholi, Hira, Kaibartta, etc.

(iii) Nagaon district has the highest percentage of SC population followed by Cachar and Kamrup.

(iv) The literacy rate of SCs in Assam is 66°76% with SC females constituting 55° and SC males constituting 44-48%.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(C) (iii) and (iv) only

(D) (i, ii), (iii) and (iv)

 

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

 

Q28. Match the following demographic terms (List-1) with their meanings (definitions) (List-Il) :

List-I                                                    List-II

a. Birthrate                          1. Number of live births per woman who were born in a particular year

b. Crude birth rate            2. Number of live births rate Per one  thousand inhabitants in a year

c. Cohort fertility               3. Determined not only by the fertility of a given population but also by its age structure

d. Birth deficit                    4. When the number of live births is lower than the number of deaths within a defined period of time

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

 

(A) a 2             b 3       c 1       d 4

 

Q29. Match the following personalities (List-}) with the awards conferred on them (List-Hl):

List—I                                   List—Il

  1. Pranab Jyoti Deka   1. Sahitya Akademi Award
  2. Arup Kumar Dutta  2. Kalicharan Brahma Award
  3. Dr. Joyanti Chutia    3. Shri Madhavdev Award
  4. Dr. Tiyathi Zameer   4. Sati Sadhani Award

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

B. a 1       b 3       c 4       d 2

 

(Our APSC Prelim Test Series 2023 – Test 10 ->Q62 matched)

 

Q30. The Ramchandi Temple, which was built during 12th century, is situated on the bank of which of the rivers of Assam?

(A) Gadadhar

(8) Kushiyara

(C) Longai

(D) Mahur

 

(D) Mahur

Q31. Consider the following statements about Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel:

(i) He got the moniker ‘Sardar’ due to his organizational skills during Bardoli Satyagraha.

(ii) The prison where Mahatma Gandhi and Sardar were cellmates was Naini Prison.

(iii) He was awarded the Bharat Ratna in 1989,

(iv) He was the first Deputy Prime Minister of India.

Select the incorrect statements using the codes given below.

(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B) (ii) and (iii) only

(C) (iii) and (iv) only

(D) (i) and (iv) only

 

(B) (ii) and (iii) only

 

Q32. Match the following names (List-I) with the Ahom rulers (List-II):

List-I                                        List-II

  1. Susenghphaa             1. Rajeswar Singha
  2. Suremphaa                 2. Chakradhwaj Singha
  3. Sutemla                       3. Pratap Singha
  4. Supangmung            4. Jayadhwaj Singha

Select the correct statements using the codes given below.

 

B. a 3       b 1       c 4       d 2

 

Q33. Gaurinath Singha entered into an Agreement with the East India Company on which of the following terms?

(i) All imports into Assam were to be subjected to a duty of 10%

(ii) The duty on export was to be 10%

(iii) Rice and grains were to be exempted from any duty

(iv) Two custom houses were to be established at Kandahar and Hadira.

Select the correct answers using the codes given below.

(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(C) (i), II and (iv) only

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

 

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

 

Q34. Match the following authors (List-I) with the books written by them (List-II):

List-I                                                       List-II

  1. Gunabhiram Baruah                1. Asamiya Byakaran
  2. Harakanta Sarma Baruah       2. Asamiya Lorar Mitra
  3. Anandaram Dhekial Phukan 3. Ram Navami
  4. Hemchandra Baruah               4. Sadar Aminar Atmajibani

Select the correct statements using the codes given below.

 

(C) a 3     b 4       c 2       d 1

(Our APSC Prelim Test Series 2023 – Test 8 ->Q17 partially matched)

 

Q35. Match the following associations (List-I) with their respective founders (List-II):

List—I                                              List—II

  1. Indian League                    1. Ananda Mohan Bose
  2. Indian Association            2. Jagannath Baruah
  3. Assam Association            3. Sisir Kumar Ghosh
  4. Jorhat Sarbajanik Sabha 4. Manik Chandra Baruah

Select the correct statements using the codes given below.

 

(B) a 3             b 1       c 4       d 2

 

Q36. The Global Drought Snapshot, released in December 2023 at the beginning of the 28th Conference of the Parties (COP-28) to the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) in Dubai, exposes the devastating consequences of droughts on lives, economies, and various sectors. Based on the data reported by 101 parties to the UNCCD, which of the following statements is/are correct?

(i} The report reveals that a staggering 1.84 billion people experienced the effects of drought. Among them 4-7% faced severe or extreme drought conditions.

(ii) Notably South Africa faced the highest number of declarations.

(iii) Drought severity prompted emergency declarations in 23 countries.

(iv) The US, Canada, India and Sri Lanka are the countries that never declared drought emergencies.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (ii) and (iv) only

(C) (i) and (iii) only

(D} (i), (ii), (i) and (iv)

 

(C) (i) and (iii) only

 

Q37. Which of the following sessions of Asom Sahitya Sabha was/were presided over by Sitanath Brahma Choudhury?

(i) Tinsukia

(ii) Dipbu

(iii) Sivasagar

(iv) Tezpur

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (i) and (ii) only

(C) (i) and (iii) only

(D) (iii) and (iv) only

 

(B) (i) and (ii) only

 

Q38. Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) :

(i) It is the flagship scheme for focused and sustainable development of fisheries in India.

(ii) It is implemented in all States/ Union Territories as part of Atmanirbhar Bharat package for a period of five years from Financial Year 2020-21 to Financial Year 2024-25

(iii) The Central Govt bears the project cost and States/UT share the cost of sub-components of the scheme.

(iv) Ornamental fish cultivation is kept out of focus under PMMSY.

Select the correct Statement(s) using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (i) and (iii) only

(C) (iv) only

(D) (ii) only

 

(C) (iv) only

 

Q39. Consider the following statements regarding Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM) ;

(i) The programme includes recharge and reuse through greywater management, water conservation and rainwater harvesting.

(ii) It is a demand-driven scheme with strong emphasis on Jan Bhagidari (community engagement) as a crucial pillar of the project.

(iii) The United Nations Office for Project Services (UNOPS) is collaborating with the Denmark Government to support the mission in Uttar Pradesh.

(iv) An average of 29 million people will be employed annually during the mission’s construction phase.

Select the correct statement/Statements using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (i) and (ii) only

(C) (ii) and (iii) only

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

 

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

 

Q40. Consider the following statements:

(i) MV Ganga Vilas is the world’s longest river cruise covering over 51 days across 2 countries, 5 States and 27 river systems.

(ii) Prime Minister Narendra Modi flagged off the cruise from Varanasi on 13th January, 2023.

(iii) The international cruise being offered  by Antara Luxury River Cruises who is operating since 2009.

(iv) The cruise  culminated the journey on 28th February in Sadiya.

Select the incorrect statements using the codes given below.

(A) (ii) only

(B) (iv) only

(C) (i) and (ii) only

(D) (ii) and (iii) only

 

(B) (iv) only

 

Q41. Which of the following dramas/Ankiya Nats was/were not composed by Sankardev?

  1. Kaliya Daman
  2. Patni Prasada
  3. Keli Gopal
  4. Arjun Bhanjan

 Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(A) (i) and (iii) only

(B) (ii) only

(C) (ii) and (iii) only

(D) (iv) only

 

(D) (iv) only

 

Q42. India celebrated her 75th Republic Day on 26th January, 2024. Which of the following statements is/are not correct about the celebration of the Republic Day, 2024?

  1. The Parade was held on Kartavya Path.
  2. The theme of the 75th Republic Day was ‘Biksit Bharat’ and ‘Bharat ; Loktantra Ki Matruka’,
  3. The three States which presented tableaux from North-East India were Meghalaya, Manipur and Nagaland.
  4. ISRO presented the historic lunar landing of Chandrayaan-IIl at the Parade.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (iii) only

(C) (ii) and (iv) only

(D) (i) and (iii) only

(Our APSC Prelim Test Series 2023 – Test 6 ->Q12  matched)
(Topic covered in our Current Affairs 2023 Module,  part of APSC Prelim Test Series 2023)

(B) (iii) only

 

Q43. All the Assam Baibhav, Assam Saurav and Assam Gourav awardees are offered certain benefits/facilities. Which of the following is/are not included in the list of benefits?

(i) They will get free medical treatment in government hospitals and stay in paying cabins, wherever available.

(ii) They will be provided free accommodation in State Government Circuit Houses, Guest Houses and Assam Bhawans.

(iii) ‘They will be regular invitees for all the official functions as distinguished guests.

(iv) The Government of Assam will provide them up to Rs. 5 Lakh for medical expenses towards the treatment of critical diseases.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (ii) and (iii) only

(B) (iii) and (iv) only

(C) (i) and (iii) only

(D) (iv) only

(Our APSC Prelim Test Series 2023 – Test 8 ->Q31  matched)
(Topic covered in our Current Affairs 2023 Module,  part of APSC Prelim Test Series 2023)

(D) (iv) only

 

Q44. Consider the following statements:

(i) NISAR is a low Earth orbit observatory being jointly developed by ISRO and NASA.

(ii) NISAR is a low Earth orbit observatory being jointly developed by ISRO and European Space Agency.

(iii) The objective of NISAR is to co-develop and launch a dual frequency synthetic aperture RADAR on an Earth observation satellite. 

(iv) NISAR is planned to be launched in 2024.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) and (iii) only

(B) (ii) and (iii) only

(C) (i) and (iv) only

(D) (i), (iii) and (iv) only

(Our APSC Prelim Test Series 2023 – Test 12 ->Q76  partially matched)

(D) (i), (iii) and (iv) only

 

Q45. Consider the following statements:

(i) India’s solar mission Aditya-L1 has been placed in halo orbit around Sun-Earth Lagrange point 1.

(ii) Lagrange points are positions of equilibrium for a small object under the gravitational pull of two massive orbiting bodies.

(iii) There are 5 Lagrange points for the Sun-Earth system

(iv) There are 5 Lagrange points for the Earth-Moon system also.

Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (i) and (ii) only

(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(Topic covered in our Current Affairs 2023 Module,  part of APSC Prelim Test Series 2023)

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

 

Q46. In the Interim Union Budget, 2024, the Finance Minister mentioned four specific groups of the population to focus on. Which of the following is/are not in the list?

(i) Poor

(ii) Women

(iii) Entrepreneur

(iv) Youth

Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (ii) and (iv) only

(C) (iii) only

(D) (iii) and (iv) only

 

(C) (iii) only

  

Q47.  Consider the following statements.

(i) In computer parlance, a cookie is a malicius computer virus.

(ii) In computer parlance, a cookie is a small piece of text sent by a website to the internet browser.

(iii) Internet cookies are used by banking websites only.

(iv) Internet cookies help the websites to remember the client’s visit to the website.

Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (ii) only

(C) (ii) and (iii) only

(D) (ii) and (iv) only

 

(D) (ii) and (iv) only

 

Q48. What is/are the factor/factors that has/have prompted the colonial rulers to initiate jute cultivation in Brahmaputra Valley?

(i) Saturation of land suitable for jute in Bengal

(ii) High demand of jute in the world market

(iii) Abundant labour supply in Brahmaputra Valley.

Select the correct answer using codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (ii) only

(C) (i) and (ii) only

(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

 

(C) (i) and (ii) only

 

Q49. Which of the following characteristics make a braided river different from a meandering river of similar discharge?

(i) Wider and Shallower

(ii) Transports high sediment load

(iii) Erodes riverbanks rapidly

(iv) Deeper

Select the correct answer using codes given below.

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(B) (i), (ii) and (iv) only

(C) (i), (iii) and (iv) only

(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

 

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

 

Q50. In which of the following Satras in Assam, the religious head (Satradhikar) is elected?

(i) Auniati

(ii) Dakhinpat

(iii) Kamalabari

(iv) Barpeta

Select the correct answer using codes given below.

(A) (i) and (iii) only

(B) (i) and (iii) only

(C) (iii) only

(D) (iv) only

 

 (D) (iv) only

Q51. As per the tripartite Memorandum of settlement signed between Government of India, Government of Assam with representatives of United Liberation Front of Assam (ULFA) on 29th december 2023, which of the following will not be set up in Assam?

  1. Indian Institute of Management
  2. School of planning and Architecture
  3. Indian Institute of Science
  4. Indian Institute of Science Education and Research

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. I only
  2. II and IV only
  3. III only
  4. III and IV only

 

C. III only

 

Q52. Match the following books (List-I) with their authors (List-II): 

List I                                                                          List II

  1. A Comprehensive History of Assam        1. Arup Jyoti Saikia
  2. The Quest for Modern Assam History     2. Arup Kumar Dutta 
  3. The Ahoms: A Reimagined History         3. Dr Nagen Saikia
  4. Asamiya Manuhar Itihas                            4. Sarnalata Baruah 

         Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

 

D. a4, b1,   c2, d3, 

 

Q53. With reference to the Charaideo Maidams, consider the following statements; 

  1. These are mounds containing the remains of the loyalty of the Varman dynasty.
  2. They are located along the foothills of the Patkai Range
  3. Charaideo Maidams is now a UNESCO World Heritage Site. 
  4. The first king who was buried after death here was Swargadeo Gadadhar Singha.

Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below. 

  1. I and III only
  2. I, II and IV only
  3. II only
  4. I, II and III only

(Our APSC Prelim Test Series 2023 – Test 8 ->Q60  partially matched)

C. II only

 

Q54. With reference to the Archeological Survey of India (ASI), consider the following statements:

  1. The prime concern of ASI is the maintenance of ancient monuments and archeological sites and remains of national importance. 
  2. It does not regulate the Antiquities and Art Treasures Act, 1972. 
  3. Alexander Cunningham was appointed as the first Director General of ASI.
  4. ASI is attached to the Ministry of Education, Government of India. 

Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below. 

  1. I only
  2. I and III only
  3. III only
  4. I, II, III and IV

 

B. I and III only

 

Q55. Match the following wetlands (List-I) with the districts where these are located (List-II): 

List I                                           List II

  1. Urpad Beel                    1. Bongaigaon
  2. Son Beel                        2. Goalpara
  3. Tamranga Beel            3. Morigaon
  4. Nandini-Sonai Beel    4. Karimganj 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(Our APSC Prelim Test Series 2023 – Test 2 ->Q65  partially matched)

A. a2, b4, c1, d3

 

Q56. Match the following Institution (List-I) with their years of establishment (List-II): 

List I                                                           List II

  1. Cotton College                                1. 1901
  2. Gauhati University                         2. 1969
  3. Assam Agricultural University    3. 1948
  4. Tezpur University                           4. 1994

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.


D. a1, b3, c2, d4

 

Q57. Consider the following developments pertaining to the history of Modern Education in India: 

  1. Sadler University Commission
  2. Lord Macaulay’s minute 
  3. Raleigh Commission
  4. Wood’s Dispatch 

Select the correct chronological order of these developments using the codes given below.

  1. I, III, II, IV
  2. II, III, I, IV
  3. II, IV, III, I
  4. I, II, III, IV


C. II, IV, III, I

 

Q58. With reference to the Khajuraho Group of Monuments, consider the following statements:

  1. The temples at Khajuraho were built during the Chandela dynasty.
  2. The temples at Khajuraho were associated with Hinduism and Jainism.
  3. The temples were built in Dravidian-style architecture.
  4. These are situated in Chhatarpur district in Maharashtra. 

Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below. 

  1. I only
  2. I and II only
  3. I, II and III only
  4. I and IV only

B. I and II only

 

Q59. Consider the following events pertaining to the Freedom Movement in India:

  1. Mountbatten Plan 
  2. Quit India Movement
  3. Wavell Plan
  4. Royal Indian Navy Mutiny

Select the correct chronological order of these events using the codes given below.

  1. II, III, IV, I
  2. II, I, III, IV
  3. II, IV, I, III
  4. II, I, IV, III

(Our APSC Prelim Test Series 2023 – Test 1 ->Q3  explanation)

A. II, III, IV, I

 

Q60. The NITI Forum for North-East was set up in February 2018 to address various challenges in the region and recommend requisite interventions to achieve sustainable economic growth. The forum has identified 5 focus areas for the North East. Which of the following is/are not in the list of focus areas?

  1. Tourism
  2. Pisciculture
  3. Pulses
  4. Fruits

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. I only
  2. I  and II only
  3. III only
  4. III and IV only

D. III and IV only

Q61. Which of the following pairs is/are incorrectly matched:

  1. State bird of Assam           : Hornbill
  2. State animal of Assam       : Rhino
  3. State flower of Assam        : Sunflower
  4. State tree of Assam           : Hollong

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. I only
  2. I and III only
  3. II and III only
  4. III and IV only

(Our APSC Prelim Test Series 2023 – Test 2 ->Q33  explanation)

B. I and III only

 

Q62. Consider the following pairs:

Places                     Events in the life of Buddha

  1. Lumbini       : Birth
  2. Sarnath        : Dharmachakrapavartana 
  3. Kushinagar : Enlightenment 
  4. Benaras       :  The Miracles 

Select the correctly matched pairs using the codes given below.

  1. I and IV only
  2. I and II only
  3. I and III only
  4. I, II and III only 

(Our APSC Prelim Test Series 2023 – Test 1 ->Q66 & Q68)

B. I and II only

 

Q63. Consider the following statements regarding the Delimitation Commission of India:

  1. The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India and works in collaboration with the President of India. 
  2. Article 82 of the Constitution of India states that the Parliament is required by law to enact a Delimitation Act following each Census.
  3. The first Delimitation exercise in post-independent India was held in 1952 as per 1951 Census. 
  4. The present delimitation of parliamentary constituencies has been done on the basis of the 2001 Census figures under the provisions of the Delimitation Act, 2002

Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below. 

  1. I only
  2. I and II only
  3. I, II and III only
  4. I, II, III and IV

(Our APSC Prelim Test Series 2023 – Test 4 ->Q66)

D. I, II, III and IV

 

Q64. Consider the following statements regarding the Election Commission of India: 

  1. The Election Commission of India is a body constitutionally empowered to conduct free and fair elections to the National and State Legislatures including the Panchayats. 
  2. The power of the Election Commission of India derived is from Article 324 of the Constitution of India.
  3. Rajiv Kumar is the present Chief Election Commissioner, who joined his office on 15th May, 2022. 
  4. The Election Commission is reconstituted every five years. 

Select the incorrect statement/ statements using the codes given below. 

  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. I and IV only
  4. III only 

(Our APSC Prelim Test Series 2023 – Test 4 ->Q45)

C. I and IV only

 

Q65. Consider the following statements regarding the Goods and Services Tax (GST) of India:

  1. GST is a successor of VAT used in India on the supply of goods and services.
  2. GST came into effect on 1st July, 2017 through the implementation of the one hundred and first Amendment of the Constitution of India.
  3. Every decision of the GST Council is to be taken by a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present and voting at the meeting.
  4. The GST Council is chaired by the Prime Minister of India. 

Select the incorrect statement/ statements using the codes given below.

  1. I only
  2. II only
  3. III and IV only
  4. I, II and III only

D. I, II and III only

 

Q66. Consider the following statements regarding Article 226 of the Constitution of India:

  1. Article 226 of the Constitution of India empowers a High Court to issue writs including habeas corpus, mandamus, certiorari, prohibition and quo warranto for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights of the citizens and for any other purpose. 
  2. The phrase ‘for any other purpose’ refers to the enforcement of an ordinary legal rights. This implies that the writ jurisdiction of the High Court is wider than that of of the Supreme Court.
  3. The Supreme Courts can issue writs only for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights and not for any other purpose, i.e, it does not extend to a case where the breach of an ordinary legal rights is alleged.
  4. The High Courts can issue writs to any person, authority and government not only within its territorial jurisdiction but also outside its territorial jurisdiction if the cause of action arises within its territorial jurisdiction.  

Select the correct statements using the codes given below.

  1. I, II and III only
  2. III and IV only
  3. I and III only
  4. I, II, III and IV

D. I, II, III and IV

 

Q67. Which among the following autonomous councils in Assam have been formed under the sixth schedule of the constitution of India? 

  1. Bodoland Territorial Council or Bodoland Territorial Region
  2. Karbi Anglong Autonomous Council 
  3. Dima Hasao Autonomous Council 
  4. Rabha Hasong Autonomous Council

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. I only
  2. I and II only
  3. I, II and III only
  4. I, II, III and IV

(Our APSC Prelim Test Series 2023 – Test 8 ->Q67)

C. I, II and III only

 

Q68. Consider the following statements regarding the special provisions to some of the States of India made by the Constitution:

  1. Article 371C provides for the special provisions for the state of Assam. Under this article the President of India is empowered to provide for the creation of committee of the Assam legislative Assembly consisting of members elected from Tribal Areas of the State and such other members as he/she may specify.
  2. Article 371C was added by the 22nd Amendment Act of 1969.
  3. Article 371D deals with special provisions with respect to the State of Andhra Pradesh and Article 371E deals with the establishments of Central University in Andhra Pradesh. 
  4. 32nd Constitutional Amendment Act, which was made in 1973, inserted Article 371D and 371E into the Constitution of India. 

Select the correct statement/statements using the codes given below.

  1. I only
  2. III and IV only
  3. I and II only
  4. I and III only


C. I and II only

 

Q69. Consider the following statements regarding the provisions of official languages in India:

  1. Article 343 of the Constitution of India has made Hindi in Devanagari as the National Language of India.
  2. The Legislature of a State may by law adopt any one or more of the languages in use in the state as the official language/languages of the State as per Article 345 of the Constitution of India.
  3. The Assam Official Language Act, 1960 has been legislated as per Article 345 of the Constitution of India.

Select the correct statements using the codes given below.

  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. I and III only
  4. I, II and III

B. II and III only

 

Q70. Match the following schedules of Indian Constitution (List-I) with their subject matters in (List- II): 

List-I                                          List-II

  1. Fourth Schedule           1. Forms of oaths and affirmations 
  2. Eleventh Schedule       2. Languages
  3. Eighth Schedule           3. Power of Panchayats 
  4. Third Schedule              4. Allocations of Seats in the Council of States

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(Our APSC Prelim Test Series 2023 – Test 12 ->Q2)

B. a4, b3, c2. d1

Q71. Consider the following factors regarding the declaration of a Political Party as a State Party by the Election Commission of India: 

  1. If it secures 6% of the valid votes polled in the states in a general election to the respective State Legislative Assembly, and also it wins 2 seats in the same State Legislative Assembly 
  2. If it secures 6% of the total votes in the State in a general election to the Lok Sabha and also it wins 1 seat in the Lok sabha from the same state
  3. If it wins 3% of the seats in the Legislative Assembly at a general election to the Legislative Assembly of the state concerned for 3 seats in the Assembly (whichever is more)
  4. If it secures 16% of the total valid votes polled in the State at a general election to the Lok Sabha from the State or to the State Legislative Assembly

Select the incorrect factors/factor using the codes given below.

  1. I, II and III only
  2. III and IV only
  3. I and III only
  4. IV only

(Our APSC Prelim Test Series 2023 – Test 4 ->Q49 partially matched)

D. IV only

 

Q72. Which of the following statements are correct about the difference between Censure and no-confidence motion?

  1. A censure motion should state the reasons for its adoption. On the other hand a no-confidence motion need not state the reasons for its adoption. 
  2. A no-confidence motion can be moved only against the council of ministers. In contrast a censure motion can be moved against the council of ministers or an individual minister or a group of ministers.
  3. The Government must resign if a no confidence motion is passed. On the other hand the Government need not resign if a censure motion is passed. 
  4. A censure motion can be moved in both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, whereas a no-confidence motion can be moved only in the Lok Sabha.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 

  1. I, III and IV only
  2. II, III and IV only
  3. I and II only
  4. I, II and III only


D. I, II and III only

 

Q73. Consider the following statements regarding the Assam legislative Assembly:

  1. According to the provisions of the Government of India Act 1935, a Bicameral Legislature of Assam Province came into existence in 1937.
  2. The first sitting of the Assam Legislative Assembly took place on April 7, 1937 in the Assembly Chamber at Shillong.
  3. Pulakesh Barua and Ganesh Kutum were the Speakers of Assam Legislative Assembly from Asom Gana Parishad and Janata Party respectively. 
  4. Babu Basanta Kumar Das was the first Speaker of the Assam Legislative Assembly.

Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below. 

  1. I only
  2. II and III only
  3. I, III and IV only
  4. I, II, III and IV

(Our APSC Prelim Test Series 2023 – Test 4 ->Q1)

C. I, III and IV only

 

Q74. It is easier to roll barrel than to pull it because

  1. the full weight of the barrel comes into play when it is pulled.
  2. rolling friction is much less than sliding friction. 
  3. the surface area of the barrel in contact with the road is more in case of pulling.
  4. of a reason other than those mentioned


B. rolling friction is much less than sliding friction. 

 

Q75. The mass of a body is different from its weight because 

  1. Mass is a variable quantity whereas weight is constant.
  2. Mass varies very little at different places whereas weight varies a lot
  3. Mass is constant but weight decreases as the body moves from the Poles to the Equator
  4. Mass is a measure of quantity of matter whereas weight is a force

Select the correct reason/ reasons using the codes given below. 

  1. I only
  2. II and IV
  3. III only
  4. III and IV

B. II and IV

 

Q76. Paddy fields are chief sources of which of the following greenhouse gasses?

  1. Methane
  2. Carbon Dioxide
  3. Nitrous Oxide
  4. Ozone 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. I only
  2. II only
  3. I and III
  4. II, III and IV 

A. I only

 

Q77. Which of the following groups contains/contain only non-biodegradable materials?

  1. Wood, paper, leather 
  2. Plastic, bakelite, DDT
  3. Plastic, thermocol, wood
  4. Thermocol, plates made from dried leaves, detergents

Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 

  1. I and II only
  2. II only
  3. II and III only
  4. III and IV only

B. II only

 

Q78. For a given liquid, the rate of evaporation depends on

  1. The temperature of the liquid
  2. The temperature of air
  3. The surface area of the liquid

Select the incorrect factor/factors using the codes given below.

  1. I only
  2. I and II only
  3. II and III only
  4. I, II and III


D. I, II and III

 

Q79. One should not connect a number of electrical appliances to the same power socket because 

  1. This can damage the appliances 
  2. This can damage the domestic wiring due to overheating
  3. The appliances will not get full voltage

Select the valid reason/reasons using the codes given below.

  1. II and III only
  2. II only
  3. I and II
  4. III only

B. II only

 

Q80. Consider the following pairs of scientist and their discoveries:

Scientists                  Discoveries

  1. Copernicus          Law of gravitation       
  2. Kepler                  Law of planetary motion
  3. Galileo                 Moons of Jupiter
  4. Newton                 Heliocentric theory

Select the correctly matched pairs using the codes given below:

  1. I and II only
  2. I, II and III only
  3. I, II, III and IV
  4. II and III

D. II and III

Q81.  From the distance- time graphs of two motorists A and B, it can be seen that

  1. A travelled with uniform speed but B did not.
  2. A travelled faster than B throughout
  3. B travelled faster than A throughout
  4. A and B travelled with equal speed.

C. B travelled faster than A throughout

 

Q82. Solutions are of many types. Consider the following types of solution with an example of each. 

  1. Gas in liquid  – Vinegar
  2. Solid in liquid – Brine
  3. Solid in solid  – Brass
  4. Liquid in liquid – Coca-Cola

Select the correctly matched pairs using the codes given below:

  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. I, III and IV only
  4. II, III and IV only


B. II and III only

 

Q83. Which of the following elements does sugar contain?

  1. Carbon
  2. Nitrogen
  3. Hydrogen
  4. Oxygen

Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 

  1. I, III and IV only
  2. I, II and III only
  3. I and III
  4. I and IV


A. I, III and IV only

 

Q84. Consider the following statements:

  1. Assam was formed into a Chief Commissioner’s Province in 1874.
  2. Assam was declared as a Governor’s Province in 1921.

Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below. 

  1. I only
  2. II only
  3. Both I and II
  4. Neither I nor II

( Our APSC Prelim Test Series 2023 – Test 4-> Q59  &  Test 12 ->Q7 )

C. Both I and II

 

Q85. The Interim Budget -2024 announcement for implementation of 3 Economic Railway Corridors identified under the PM Gati Shakti for enabling multinodal connectivity includes which of the following?

  1. Energy, Mineral  and Cement Corridors
  2. Rural Roads Connectivity Corridors
  3. Port Connectivity Corridors
  4. High Traffic Density Corridors

Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 

  1. I and II only
  2. I, II and III only
  3. I, III and IV only
  4. II, III and IV only

C. I, III and IV only

 

Q86. Which of the following best describes/describe the main aim of ‘ Green India Mission’  of the government of India? 

  1. Incorporating environmental benefits and costs into the Union and state’s budgets thereby implementing the ‘ green accounting’ 
  2. Launching the second Green Revolution to enhance agricultural output so as to ensure food security to all and one in the future. 
  3. Restoring and enhancing forest cover responding to climate change by a combination of adaptation and mitigation measures. 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 

  1. I only
  2. II and III only
  3. III only
  4. I, II and III

C. III only

 

Q87. What is ‘Greenhouse Gas Protocol’? 

  1. It is an international accounting tool for government and business leaders to understand, quantify, and manage greenhouse gas emission.
  2. It is an initiative of the United Nations to offer financial incentives to developing countries to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and to adopt eco-friendly technologies. 
  3. It is an intergovernmental agreement ratified by all the member countries of the United Nations to reduce greenhouse gas emissions to specified levels by the year 2030. 
  4. It is one of the multilateral REDD+ initiatives hosted by the World Bank. 


A. It is an international accounting tool for government and business leaders to understand, quantify, and manage greenhouse gas emission.

 

Q88. Which of the following Faunas are found in North East India?

  1. Tokay gecko
  2. Red Panda
  3. Hoolock gibbon
  4. Lion-tailed macaque

Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 

  1. I and II
  2. II and III
  3. I, II and III
  4. I, II, III and IV


C. I, II and III

 

Q89. Which of the following national parks in India are World Heritage Sites? 

  1. Keoladeo National Park 
  2. Manas National Park 
  3. Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve
  4. Great Himalayan National Park

Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 

  1. I, II and III only 
  2. II, III and IV only
  3. I, III and IV only
  4. I, II, III and IV


D. I, II, III and IV

 

Q90. Protection of Wildlife comes under which of the following in the Constitution of India?

  1. Fundamental Duties
  2. Directive Principles
  3. Seventh Schedule
  4. Fundamental Rights

Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 

  1. I and II
  2. II and IV
  3. I and III
  4. I, II and III


D. I, II and III

 

Q91. What is the name of the feature that allows organisms to survive in the conditions of their habitat?

  1. Adjustment
  2. Adaptation
  3. Acclimatization 
  4. Adaptive Variation 


B. Adaptation

 

Q92. Recently the ‘ Annual Status of Education Report (ASER), 2023 was submitted by PRATHAM. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the report?

  1. The Report focused on 14-18 years of age group. 
  2. According to the report, the percentage of the youths not enrolled in any form of education has gone up for 14 years olds and gone down 18 years old as compared to the year 2017. 
  3. For discontinuing education, almost 20% of girls attributed it to family constraints’. 
  4. The report asserted that the fear that the several other students dropped out of school during the COVID-19 Pandemic due to loss of livelihood was true. 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. I only
  2. I and II
  3. I and III
  4. II and IV

C. I and III

Q93. Consider the following statements regarding Bhimbor Deuri, a prominent leader of the Tribal League:

  1. Bhimbor Deuri vehemently opposed the Muslims League’s conspiracy to include Assam in a grouping plan with Bengal.
  2. Bhimbor Deuri supported a proposal for a separate electorate  for the tribal people for strengthening the rights of indigenous people. 

Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below. 

  1. I only
  2. II only
  3. Both I and II
  4. Neither I nor II

C. Both I and II


Q94. Match the following folk dance forms (List-I) with their corresponding communities of Assam (List-II):

List-I                                         List-II             

  1. Hacha Kekan              1. Dimasa
  2. Hanaghora                  2. Karbi 
  3. Bisuyo Jama Dance  3. Rabha
  4. Baidima                       4. Deuri


D. a2, d3, c4, d1

 

Q95. Which of the following pairs is /are incorrectly matched?

  1. Finance Commission of India: Constitutional body
  2. Securities and Exchange Board of India: Statutory body
  3. NITI Aayog: Constitutional body
  4. Reserve Bank of India: Statutory body

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. I and III only
  2. II and IV only
  3. III only
  4. IV only

C. III only

 

Q96. Which of the following groups of places is/are located on the North bank of Brahmaputra?

  1. Bijni Jogighopa, Raha, Titabor
  2. Hajo, Sarthebari, Moran Bihpuria
  3. Bongaigaon, Dekhla-juli, Gohpur
  4. Sualkuchi, Barpeta, Kharupetia, Narayanpur

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. I and II
  2. III and IV
  3. I and III
  4. IV only


B. III and IV only

Q97. Match the following personalities (List-I) with the popular sobriquets by which they are known (List-II):

List- I                                               List-II

  1. Anandiram Das                 1. Geetikavi
  2. Parbati Prasad Baruah    2. Lauha Manab
  3. Bishnuram Medhi            3. Bonkonwar
  4. Hemchandra Baruah      4. Tyagbir

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

D. a3, b1, c2, d4

 

Q98. Which of the following is/are correct about ‘eRupee’?

  1. It refers to Rupee circulation in Europe. 
  2. It refers to Exchange rate of Rupee. 
  3. It is digital Rupee App of the State Bank of India. 
  4. It is the Central Bank Digital Currency. 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. I and II
  2. I and IV
  3. III only
  4. IV only

C. III only

Q99. The proposed India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC) is expected to have multiple benefits for India. Which of the following is/are in the lists of benefits?

  1. It is a new and more efficient way for India to export its goods to Europe. 
  2. It would make India a more attractive destination for foreign investment.
  3. The construction and maintenance of the Economic corridor would create millions of new jobs in India. 
  4. The construction of the new corridor will be under the supervision of the World Trade Organisations. 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. I only
  2. I and II
  3. I, II and III
  4. I, II and IV only


C. I, II and III

 

Q100. Match the following places (List-I) with their districts where these are located (List-II):

List-I                              List-II

  1. Sitajakhala          1. Dima Hasao
  2. Silghat                 2. Nagaon
  3. Kulsi                     3. Kamrup 
  4. Semkhor            4. Morigaon

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

C. a4, b3, c2, d1

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Q45. You are riding your bike in an isolated stretch of the highway, about 100 m behind  ascooterist. Suddenly a car overtakes you, knocks down the scooterist  (unfortunately) and tries to flee from the scene. What will you do?

(A) Run away from the scene as quickly as possible to avoid any involvement with the police

(B) Pursue the culprit vehicle at breakneck speed with the intention of thrashing the erring driver

(C) Attend the victim of the accident and call for 108 ambulance service, if required

(D) Wait for other people to arrive at the spot

 

Q46. You ordered food for 1,000 on a food app and paid online. The delivery boy, after delivering the food packet, suggested that from the next time onward you should order food on cash on delivery mode. Then he would deliver the food at half the actual price. You understand that this is a scam but a win-Win arrangement foryou and the delivery boy at’ the expense of the food delivery app. You  will

(A) take advantage Of the situation and go by the suggestion or the food delivery boy

(B) just ignore the suggestion and forget the

(C) highlight the incident in social media platforms tagging the CEO of the food delivery app       

(D) give a moral lecture to the delivery boy and ask him not get involved in such scams 

 

Q47. You experienced racial abuse while visiting a foreign country. What will you do?

(A) Move away from the scene

(B) Quarrel with the abuser

(C) Try to become friendly with the abuser

(D) Calmly tell the abuser that what he has done is wrong and that you are going to report the matter to the authority.

 

Q48. Assam is plagued by recurrent and devastating floods and erosion every year. The large number of rivers and their tributaries carry a huge volume Of water, silt and other debris including carcasses of dead animals. Apart from the misery paused by loss of hearth and homes, water-borne diseases play havoc with their lives. Successive governments have succeeded to a certain extent in solving the problem by building embankments, spurs and other innovative ideas, etc. Many people have put forward a variety of solutions including dredging of the rivers, doing away with all embankments and allowing the river waters to flow freely, raising the height of the homes, shifting people from riverine areas and settling them elsewhere. You would

(A) build dams to reduce the flow of water

(B) do away with all embankments

(C) solve the problem using innovative ideas

(D) shift people from riverine areas        

 

Q49. You and your friend have gone shopping and have purchased jewellery amounting to rupees five lakh from a shop. You request the store manager to give you a rebate considering the fact that you have purchased high value goods at a considerable cost. The store manager offers a discount of one percent, but your friend is outraged by the offer and threatens to leave without buying anything. The store manager is worried and asks her how much rebate she expects and she demands a rebate of at least 10%. The manager says he has to consult his boss. The manager comes back in a few minutes and says he can give the rebate of 10% as desired but in that case would not provide an invoice to the customer. If you were the customer, what would you do?

(A) Accept the manager’s original offer of one percent rebate

(B)’ Advise your friend to pay the bill and not ask for a rebate

(C) Accept the manager’s offer of not providing an invoice

(D) Accept the manager’s offer and then report the matter to the authorities

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Q58. According to Oxford Dictionary, ‘restitution’ means ‘the restoration of something lost or stolen to its proper owner; recompense for injury or loss’. Which of the following situations would be the nearest example of restitution?

(A) Ravi returned the mobile handset he purchased a week ago as the same heated up too high when viewing You?ube videos and claimed replacement with compensation.

(B) David returned the lawn mower he borrowed from Timothy, with a broken blade that cracked upon hitting a rock when David was clearing his yard, and offered to pay for the repair and a new set of blades.

(C) Amelia complained to her neighbour of her place being broken in and burgled, and demanded compensation as she had requested the neighbour to keep an eye on her place over the weekend when she is gone off to the beach.

(D) Satyam returned Gurpreet’s bike that he had borrowed, offered to pay for the quantity of fuel consumed, and small gift as a token of gratitude.

 

Q67. Identify the incorrect statement/ statements from the following

(i) The word ’emoji’ has its roots in the English word ’emotion’.

(ii) The word ’emoji’ is a blend of two Japanese words for picture and letter.

(iii) Shigetaka Kurita is considered to be the founding father of today’s emojis.

(iv) Steve Wozniak, one of the founders of Apple, is considered to be the founding father of today’s emojis.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only (i)

(B) Only (i) and (iv)

(C) Only (iii)

(D) Only (ii) and (iv)

 

Q68. Identify the incorrect statement.

(A) Haptic communication is a form of nonverbal communication.

(B) A handshake is an example of haptics.

(C) Haptic communication is via the sense of touch.

(D) The origin of the word ‘haptic’ is Spanish.

 

Q69. The capacity to sense other people’s emotion, together with the capacity to imagine what someone else might be feeling, is called

(A) sympathy

(B) understanding

(C) empathy

(D) caring

 

Q70. Johari Window is

(A) one of the earliest versions of MS Windows

(B) the latest version of MS Windows

(C) the beta version of MS Windows

(D) a framework for understanding conscious and unconscious bias that can help enhance self-awareness and our perceptions on others


Q71. Grapevine communication is

(A) very similar to fiber optics communication

(B) the most sophisticated military communication system, which was recently acquired by India

(C) a method of spreading information, half-truths, gossips, etc., by informal conversation

(D) a process used to brew high quality red wines


Q73. You have shown appreciation for an undesirable gift. This is an example of

(A) white lie

(B) compulsive lie

(C) deceptive lie

(D) black lie


Q74. In social science, oculesics refers to              

(A) the study of eye-related nonverbal communication

(B) the study of hand-related nonverbal communication

(C) the study of foot-related nonverbal communication

(D) the study of nose-related nonverbal communication


Q75. MUM effect means

(A) a tendency to remain silent in company of people

(B) a reluctance to reveal negative information

(C) a fear of public speaking

(D) a tendency to prevent other people from speaking


Q76. Identify the correct statement/ statements from -the following

(i) Disfluencies are interruptions in the smooth flow Of speech.

(ii) Prolonged sound like ‘Soooooo cute’ is an example of disfluencies.

(iii) Pausing silently during a speech is an example of disfluencies.

(iv) Repeating words during a speech is an example of disfluencies.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only (i)

(B) Only (i) and (ii)

(C) Only (i), (ii) and (iii)

(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)


Q77. Which is the agency of the Union Government of India that disseminates information regarding the government policies and projects to the media in India? [ NOT a CSAT Qs ]

(A) Press Information Bureau (PIB)

(B) Press Trust of India (PH)

(C) All India Radio (AIR)

(D) Press Council of India (PCI)

 

Q78. Multimedia comprises of

(A) text and audio

(B) video and audio

(C) only video

(D) text, audio and video

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Q26. In the figure below, one space is vacant, which has been indicated as ? :

Download PDF to see figure

Q27. Histogram below shows the production per year in thousand units from 2010 to 2020 for a certain company :

Download PDF to see figure

A person studied the histogram and concluded the following .

(i) The company achieved the highest growth in production per year in 2016 for the decade 2011-2020.

(ii) The production per year shows a negative growth in the year 2019 for the decade 2011-2020.

Now, choose the correct one from the following alternatives.

(A) Both conclusions (i) and (ii) are correct

(B) Only conclusion (i) is correct

(C) Only conclusion (ii) is correct

(D) Neither conclusion (i) nor conclusion (ii) is correct

 

Q28. pie diagram below shows the average monthly expenditure of a family. The monthly income of the family is Rs. 50,000.

Consider the following statements

(i) The average monthly expenditure of the family for conveyance is about 10,000.

(ii) The average monthly expenditure of the family for food is about 17,500.

Now, choose the correct one from the following alternatives.

(A) Both conclusions (i) and (ii) are correct

(B) Only conclusion (i) is correct

(C) Only conclusion (ii) is correct

(D) Neither conclusion (i) nor conclusion (ii) is correct

 

Q29. graphs below show the production and sales figures of a company for the decade 2011-2020. The company could sell 2 80% Of its products every year during the decade:

Download PDF to see figure

One may conclude the following :

(i) The company effected a price drop in the year 2015.

(ii) Sales-wise, the worst performing year for the company was 2020.


Now, choose the correct one from the following alternatives.

(A) Both conclusions (i) and (ii) are correct

(B) Only conclusion (i) is correct

(C) Only conclusion (ii) is correct

(D) Neither conclusion (i) nor conclusion (ii) is correct

 

Q35. Pick up the most appropriate word to fill in the blank from the given alternatives :

float, hook, line, bait, net,

(A) saw

(B) spade

(C) axe

(D) pond

 

Q36. Pick up the most appropriate word to fill in the blank from the given alternatives .

Bengal, Indo-Chinese, South China, Amur,

(A) Sumatran

(B) Caspian

(C) Bali

(D) Javan

Q37. In the given list below, identify the word which is different from the rest :

inflexible, stubborn, obstinate, acquiescent, rigid, dogged

(A) acquiescent

(B) obstinate

(C) dogged

(D) rigid

 

Q38. If Cycle pairs with Velodrome, then Boxing will pair with

(A) Arena

(B) Ring

(C) Court

(D) Pitch

 

Q50. How many triangles can be formed within a regular octagon, where vertices of the octagon are vertices of the triangles, and each triangle can have only one side common with that of the octagon, but none of the sides passes through the centre of the octagon?

(A) 32

(B) 16

(C) 24

(D) 64

 

Q51. If the square represents traders, circle represents football lovers and triangle represents women who love football, then which slice represents women who love football, but are not traders?

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(A) C

(B) E

(C) D

(D) There is no such slice

 

Q52. If Bus is related to Car, then in the same way, River would be related to

(A) Stream

(B) Pond

(C) Lake

(D) Swimming pool

 

Q61. A and B start walking in opposite directions. A covers 3 km and B covers 4 km. Then A turns right and walks 4 km while B turns left and walks 3 km. How far is each from the starting point?

(A) 5 km

(B) 4 km

(C) 10 km

(D) 8 km

 

Q62. In a row of 40 students, Saurav is 24th from the left end and Sachin is *6th from the right end. How many students are there between Saurav and Sachin?

(A) 10

(B) 9

(C) 8

(D) None of the above

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Q18. Consider the following sequence of combinations of three alphabets

LPP, MOO, NNN, OMM

The combination of three alphabets that will come after OMM is

(A) PPP

(B) PXX

(C) PLL

(D) PQQ


Q19. A family consists of six members A, B, C, D, E and F. There are two married couples in the family. Now, consider the following statements in respect of the family 

  1. F is the daughter of E, who is a policewoman by profession.
  2. B is the wife of A.
  3. D is the daughter of A.

Then which of the following statements is/ are correct?

(i) C is the husband of E.

(ii) C is the son of A.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only (i)

(B) only (ii)

(C) Both (i) and (ii)

(D) Neither (i) nor (ii)


Q20. If Angkor Wat pairs with Cambodia, then Kamakhya will pair with

(A) Assam

(B) Nilachal

(C) India

(D) Kamrup

 

Q21. If Red pairs with Yellow, then Green will pair with

(A) Violet

(B) Blue

(C) Indigo

(D) Orange


Q22. If ‘tiger’ is coded as ‘5regit’, then ‘deer’ will be coded as

(A) 4reed

(B) 5reed

(C) 4regit

(D) 1 regit


Q23. If Rangia is coded as Sbohjb, then Tihu will be coded as

(A) Uijv

(B) UVIJ

(C) Uivj

(D) Ujiv

 


Q24. From the given, set of numbers below, identify the one which is different from the rest : 7, 13, 17, 19, 106

(A) 17

(B) 19

(C) 106

(D) All are same in type


Q32. Study the following information.

(i) A, B, C, D, E and F are six graduate students studying in B. Barua College, Guwahati. They have offered major in six different subjects, viz., Physics, Chemistry, Z0010U, Botany, Ge010U and Political Science.

(ii) Two of them belong to Nagaon, two belong to Dibrugarh and the remaining two are local.

(iii) A and F belong to Nagaon, B belongs to Dibrugarh and C is local.

(iv) D is local and has major in Zoology.

(v) A has major in Chemistry while E’s major subject is Geology.

(vi) One student belonging to Nagaon is an Arts student.

(vii) Students hailing from Dibrugarh have not offered major in Physics.

Now, answer the following question:

Which of the following combinations of students and major subjects is not correct?

(A) A-Chemistry

(B) C-Physics

(C) F-Political Science

(D) B – Geology

 

Q33. With reference to the Question No. 32 above, what are the major subjects of the two local students?

(A) Physics and Chemistry

(B) Physics and Zoology

(C) Zoology and Botany

(D) Chemistry and Geology

 

Q34. If the code for CAT is 05-03-22, then the code for DOG will be

(A) 07-12-22

(B) 06-17-09

(C) 11-07-22

(D) 06-11-09

 

Q41. Nowadays, most of the offices have gone paperless to the extent possible because

(i) a paperless office is environment friendly

(ii) paper is very costly nowadays Choose the correct alternative.

(A) Only (i) is correct

(B) Only (ii) is correct

(C) Both (i) and (ii) are correct

(D) Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct



Q42. The government is encouraging the use of electric vehicles because

(i) fossil fuel will not last forever

 (ii) electric vehicles do not ,cause pollution

Choose the correct alternative.

(A) Only (i) is correct

(B) Only (ii) is correct

(C) Both (i) and (ii) are correct

(D) Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct

 

Q43. Dengue is spreading alarmingly in certain pockets of the city. Therefore

(i)3 fumigation should be carried out in war footing in the affected areas

(ii) residents should be advised to avoid non-vegetarian foods

Choose the correct alternative.

(A) Only (i) is correct

(B) Only (ii) is correct

(C) Both (i) and (ii) are correct

(D) Neither (i) nor (ii) is Correct

 

Q44. Arrange the following rulers in a meaningful order . [ NOT a CSAT Qs ]

1.Queen Victoria

  1. SwargadeoRudraSingha
  2. ChhatrapatiShivajiMaharaj
  3. Emperor Bahadur Shah Zafar
  4. Czar Nicholas Il

Choose the correct answer.

(A) 3, 2, 4, 1, 5

(B) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

(C) 3, 2, 5, 1, 4

(D) 3, 5, 1, 4, 2


Q53. Consider the following sequence of pairs of alphabets .

AK, BL, DIV, GQ

The pair of alphabets that will come after GQ is

(A) CM

(B) HJ

(C) KL

(D) KU

 

Q55. The special edition paperback version of Roget’s Thesaurus has 656 printed pages, and all are numbered except the covers. What would be the total number of digits used for page numbering this book?

(A) 1760

(B) 1680

(C) 1860

(D) 1670



Q56. The town clock of Pradoga takes 6 seconds to strike six at 6 0’clock. How much time would it take to strike eleven at 11 0’clock?

(A) 11 seconds

(B) 10 seconds

(C) 14 seconds

(D) 12 seconds



Q79. Consider the following information regarding the performance of a class of100 students in four different tests:

Tests                     Average Marks                 Range of Marks

I                               60                                           30-90

II                             60                                           45-75

III                            70                                           20-100

IV                            80                                           0-100

If a student scores 74 marks in each of the four tests, in which one of the following tests is his/her performance the best comparatively?

(A) Test 1

(B) Test 11

(C) Test 111

(D) Test IV

 

Q80. Consider the following sequence of numbers :

11, 14, 19, 26

The number that will come after 26 is

(A) 33

(B) 34

(C) 35

(D) 36

 

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Q17. By selling an article at ₹ 270, a man loses 10%. If he would sell it at ₹ 360, his gain percentage will be

(B) 10

(C) 15

(D) 20

 

Q25. A school offers Science and Arts courses. 75% of the final year students are in the Science stream. In the final examination, 25% of the Science students and 24 9% of the Arts students of the school obtained first class. The above data have been represented in the figures. In the figures, the upper row is for Science while the lower row is for Arts. The shaded portion represents the % of students securing first class while the bigger rectangle represents the % of Science or Arts students as the case may be :

Choose the correct one from the following alternatives.

(A) Figure (i) depicts the data most accurately

(B) Figure (ii) depicts the data most accurately

(C) Figure (iii) depicts the data most accurately

(D) Figure (iv) depicts the data most accurately

 

 

Q39. A man drives a car from A to B with an average speed of 40 kmph and then returns to A by the same route with an average speed of 60 kmph. The average speed of the car for the entire up and down journey in kmph is              

(A) 45

(B) 48

(C) 50

(D) 55

 

Q40. A man walks 6 km to North, then turns right through 900 and walks 8 km. Then he turns South and walks 3 km. Again, he turns right through 900 and walks 4 km and stops. How far is he now from his starting point?

(A) 3 km

(B) 4 km

(C) 5 km

(D) 6 km

Q54. In a gift bag, a birthday girl found toffees and lollipops, where toffees were three times in number as compared to lollipops. Which of the following cannot be a total count of goodies in her gift bag?

(A) 44

(B) 48

(C) 42

(D) 52

 

Q59. In the following two arithmetic operations, the numbers are correct, but the operators are all mixed up, except the ‘=’ sign

(i) 9+5 = 20x 25

(ii) 76 / 60 = 64 – 4

Under this new usage of operators, which of the following operations is valid?

 

(A) 0

(B) 1

(C) 2

(D) 4

 

Q63. A garden is 24 m long and 14 m wide. There is a path of 1 m wide outside the garden along its sides. If the path is to be constructed with square marble tiles 10 cm x 10 cm, then find the number of tiles required to cover the path.

(A) 2000

(B) 4000

(C) 8000

(D) None of the above

 

Q64. Two cars are moving in the same direction with a speed of 45 kmph and a distance of 10 km separates them. If a car coming from the opposite direction meets these two cars at an interval of 6 minutes, its speed would be

(A) 45 kmph

(B) 55 kmph

(C) 65 kmph

(D) 75 kmph

 

Q65. The speed of a boat in still water is 10 m/ s and the speed of the stream is 6 m/ s. If the boat is moving upstream and again downstream, what is the ratio of the time taken to cover a particular stretch of distance in each direction?

(A) 2 : 1

(B) 3 : 1

(C) 4 : 1

(D) 6 : 1

 

Q66. The average weight of a class of 15 boys and 10 girls is 384 kg. If the average weight of the boys is 40 kg, then what is the average weight of the girls?

(A) 36.0 kg

(B) 36.5 kg

(C) 35.0 kg

(D) 35.6 kg

 

 

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Read the following passage carefully and answer Question Nos. 1 and 2

The chief gateways to the world of international trade are the ports and harbours. Cargoes and travellers pass from one part of the world to another through these ports. The ports provide facilities for docking, loading, unloading and storage facilities for cargo, In order to provide these facilities, the port authorities make arrangements for maintaining navigable channels, arranging tugs and barges, and providing labour and managerial services. The importance of a port is judged by the type of cargo and the number of ships handled. The quantity of cargo handled by a port is an indicator of the level of development of its hinterland. Generally ports are classified according to the types of traffic and the cargo which they handle, like industrial, commercial and comprehensive ports. Most of the world’s great ports are classified as comprehensive ports. Ports are classified on the basis of their location as inland ports and out ports. They are also classified on the basis of specialized functions like oil ports, ports of call, packet stations or ferry ports, entre ports and naval ports.

Q1. The importance of a port is judged by

(A) type of ships handled and size of cargo

(B) quality of cargo and size of ships handled

(C) type of cargo and number of ships handled

(D) quantity of cargo and size of ships handled


Q2. Most of the world’s great ports are classified as

(A) naval ports

(B) commercial ports

(C) industrial ports

(D) comprehensive ports

 

Read the following passage carefully and answer Question Nos. 3 and 4

The Wodehouses, like others, were in constant contact with the British Vice-Consul in Boulogne and expected to be alerted by him if it became no longer safe to remain in residence. The warning was never given. As with the others who had continued to live in the area, it seemed that the Wodehouses did not really appreciate the extent of the danger they were in by staying on. On 21st May, the Wodehouses set out in a car chock full of possessions from their house in Le Touquet. After covering only a short distance, the car broke down, having been repaired poorly after a crash some weeks ago. They had not noticed problems with the car as they had been using their other car since then. They set out again, this time in a convoy with their neighbours, who were travelling in a van and a car. The van broke down. By the time it was repaired it, was evening and the party decided to return to Le Touquet. That night the Germans captured the town. Wodehouse was required to report to the German authorities at the town of Paris Plage each day while his wife was required to report once a week. The Germans commandeered the Wodehouse bathroom. This fact and Wodehouse’s comments on it were to spawn various stories proving his support and sympathies for the Germans. The Germans were unwelcome not only for dropping into his house for a bath but also for raiding his larder, taking away their car, bicycles, radio and tobacco.

Q3. Select the correct statement.

(A) The car and the van of the Wodehouses broke down on their way back from Le Touquet.

(B) The car and the van of the Wodehouses broke down on their way from  Le Touquet.

(C) The car of the Wodehouses and the van of their neighbours broke down on their way back from Le Touquet.

(D) The van of the neighbours of the Wodehouses broke down on their way from Le Touquet.


Q4. Which of the following is correct about the Germans?

(A) They occupied the house of the Wodehouses, used their bath and raided their larder,

(B) They used their bath, raided their larder and took away their car, bicycle, radio and tobacco,

(C) They used their bath, raided their larder and took away their car, bicycles, radio and tobacco.

(D) They used their bath, raided their larder and took away their cars, bicycles, radio and tobacco.

Read the following passage carefully and answer Question Nos. 5 and 6

Hobbies help us grow as a person. The best way to have a hobby is to try something new. All of us are unique and this is the reason why our hobbies and interests are different. Once we find an activity we are passionate about we can explore that activity. When you get hooked, you will realize that your hobby has become an integral part of your life. Having a hobby that we enjoy brings us joy and refreshes us. Hobbies help us to manage our leisure and unplanned time more productively. It also affords you the opportunity to learn new skills in your work. The journey of experiencing your hobby is rewarding in itself. With the exposure to different types of activities these days, it does not matter which activity you choose-pursuing a craft, sports, puzzles or skill development-your hobby should be your diversion and passion.

Q5. On the basis of you+ -reading of the above passage, the option that is clearly the synonym of ‘hooked’ is

(A) opposed

(B) captivated

(C) indifferent

(D) willing


Q6. No matter what activity you are pursuing your hobby should be

(A) useful to you

(B) a skill that helps you

(C) a diversion and a passion

(D) None of the above

 

Read the following passage carefully and answer Question Nos. 7 and 8

Mountains have always been held in great awe by mankind. They have been a challenge to humans. Those brave among us have always wanted to conquer them. You see, the more incredible the mountains, the greater the thrill-a challenge to the bravery of the human race. Climbing mountains is an experience that is hard to put into words. Mountain climbing is undoubtedly one of the most popular adventure sports, along with being challenging and risky for the climber. Without any perceived risk there cannot be a feeling that any significant challenge has been surmounted. The enthusiasts must develop in themselves the spirit of adventure, willingness to undertake hardships and risks, extraordinary power of perseverance, endurance and keenness of purpose before climbing a mountain. Up there where the intention is to embrace nature’s wonder, one realizes that it cannot be done without facing its formidable glory. A true mountaineer may challenge the mountain, yet is always respectful to the powerful forces of nature.

Q7. Why does the writer say that mountains inspire awe in humans?

(A) They present us with opportunities for exciting sports.

(B) They evoke a wish in us to conquer them.

(C) They inspire in us deeds of valour.

(D) They represent a challenge to us.


Q8. Select the reason the mountaineer is respectful to the forces of nature when up in the mountains.

(A) Survival

(B) Fear (C) Tradition

(D) Power

 

Read the following passage carefully and answer Question Nos. 9 and 10

Evolution has designed the vultures to be the ultimate scavengers. Enormous wingspans allow them to circle in the air for hours. Their beaks, while rather horrifying, are weak by bird standards, made to scoop and eat flesh. However unappealing they may seem, vultures serve an important role in the ecological cycle, processing the dead bodies of animals. Only 20 years ago, India had plenty of vultures-flocks so enormous they darkened the skies. But by 1999, their numbers had dropped due to a mysterious kidney ailment. By 2008, 99.9% of India’s vultures were gone. It was finally discovered that they had been killed by a drug called Diclofenac. Indians revere their cows and when a cow shows signs of pain, they treat it with the pain reliever Diclofenac. After the animal died, the vultures would eat the carcass, though the vultures boast of one of the world’s most efficient digestive systems they cannot digest Diclofenac. Sometimes vultures feed on carcasses laced with poison intended to kill jackals and other predatory carnivores. India banned the use of Diclofenac for veterinary use in 2006, but it is still widely used. The near extinction of vultures has caused diseases in the country as rats and dogs moved in to take their place-spreading pathogens that would have otherwise been destroyed by the vultures.

Q9. What does the phrase ‘moved in to take their place’ mean?

(A) Contributed to the task

(B) Helped them

(C) Replaced them

(D) Removed them


Q10. On the basis of the above passage, which of the following can be inferred as the major cause of the death of vultures?

(A) They feed on carcasses laced with poison intended to kill them.

(B) They feed on carcasses laced with poison intended to kill jackals and other predators.

(C) They eat carcasses laced with Diclofenac.

(D) None of the above

 

Read the following passage carefully and answer Question Nos. 11 and 12

The movement for the right to information is one of the few recent examples of a movement that did succeed in getting the state to accept its major demands. The movement started in 1990 when a mass-based organization called Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan in Rajasthan took the initiative in demanding records of famine relief work and accounts of labourers. In 2004, the RTI Bill was tabled and received presidential assent in June 2005. The demand was raised in Bhim Tehsil, a very remote and backward region. The villagers asserted their right by asking for copies of bills and vouchers and names of persons on muster rolls who had been paid wages. “In ‘1996, the MKSS formed the National Council for People’s Right to Information. Prior to that, the Consumer Education and Research Centre, the Press Council of India and the Shourie Committee had proposed a draft RTI law. In 2002, a weak Freedom of Information Act was legislated but never came into force.

Q11. RTI means

(A) Right to Investigation

(B) Right to Intimation

(C) Right to Interference

(D) Right to Information


Q12. The RTI Bill was tabled in

(A) 1996

(B) 2002               

(C) 2004

(D) 2005

Read the following passage carefully and answer Question Nos. 13 and 14

The Antarctica continental region extends over 14 million square kilometres and comprises 26% of the world’s wilderness area, representing 90% of all the territorial ice and 70% of planetary freshwater. The Antarctica also extends to a further 36 million square kilometres of ocean. It has limited terrestrial life and a highly productive marine ecosystem, comprising of a few plants, marine mammals, fish and hordes of birds as well as krill which is central to marine food chain and upon which other animals are dependent. The Antarctica plays an important role in maintaining climatic equilibrium and deep ice cores provide an important source of information about greenhouse gas concentration and atmospheric temperatures of hundreds and thousands of years ago. Who owns this coldest, farthest and windiest continent on the globe? There are two claims about it. Some countries like UK, Argentina, Chile, Norway, France and New Zealand have made legal claims to sovereign rights over it. Most other states have taken the opposite view that it is part of the global commons and not subject to the executive jurisdiction of any state. The Arctic and Antarctic polar regions are subjected to special regional rules of environment protection.

Q13. The above passage tells us that the highly productive marine ecosystem comprises of

(A) a few plants, marine animals, fish and hordes of birds

(B) a few plants, marine mammals, fish and hordes of birds

(C) plants, marine mammals, hordes of fish and birds

(D) plants, mammals, fish and hordes of birds


Q14. The Arctic polar region is owned by

(A) Argentina, China, Norway, France, New Zealand and UK

(B) UK, Argentina, Chile, Norway, Australia, France and Greenland

(C) Chile, Argentina, China, Norway, France and New Zealand

(D) None of the above

 

Read the following passage carefully and answer Question Nos. 15 and 16

Janardhan works in a call centre. He leaves late in the evening for work, becomes John when he enters the office, acquires a new accent and speaks a different language to communicate with his clients, who are living thousands of miles away. He works all night which is actually daytime for his overseas customers. Janardhan is rendering service to somebody, who in all probability, he is never likely to meet physically. Ramdhari has gone shopping to buy a birthday gift for his nine-year-old daughter. He has promised her a small cycle and decided to search the market for something he can afford as well as of reasonable quality. He finally buys a cycle, which is actually manufactured in China but is being marketed in India. It meets his requirements of quality and affordability. Last year he had, on his daughter’s insistence, bought her a Barbie doll, which was originally manufactured in the US and was being sold in India. Sarika is a first generation learner who has done remarkably well throughout her school and college life by working very hard. She now has an opportunity to take up a job and begin an independent career which the women in her family had never dreamt of earlier. While some of her relatives are opposed to her decision, she goes ahead because of the new opportunities that have been made available to her generation.

Q15. The examples in the passage illustrate

(A) globalization of services

(B) conflict of values

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) Neither (A) nor (B)


Q16. Sarika’s decision reflects a conflict of values originating from

(A) a new opportunity that was available to the women in her family

(B) an unacceptable new opportunity that was available to the women in her family

(C) a new opportunity that was not available to the women in her family

(D) None of the above

 

Q30. Study the passage below:

The introduction of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) is a very significant step in the field of indirect tax reforms in India. By amalgamating a large number of Central and State taxes into a single tax, GST will mitigate ill effects of cascading or double taxation in a major way and pave the way for a common national market. From the consumers point of view, the biggest advantage would be in terms of reduction in the overall tax burden on goods, which is currently estimated to be around 25%-30%. It would also imply that the actual burden of indirect taxes on goods and services would be much more transparent to the consumer. Introduction of GST would also make Indian products competitive in the domestic and international markets owing to the full neutralization of input taxes across the value chain of production and distribution. Studies show that this would have impact on economic growth. Last but not the least, this tax, because of its transparent and self-policing character, would be easier to administer. It would also encourage a shift from the informal to formal economy.

On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made.

(i) Introduction of GST is a paradigm shift from the earlier tax regime.

(ii) GST subsumed all indirect taxes in India.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

(A) Assumption (i) only

(B) Assumption (ii) only

(C) Both assumptions (i) and (ii)

(D) Neither assumption (i) nor assumption (ii)

 

Q31. Study the passage below:

The new education policy must provide to all students, irrespective of their place of residence, a quality education system, with particular focus on historically marginalized, disadvantaged, and underrepresented groups. Education is a great leveler and is the best tool for achieving economic and social mobility, inclusion, and equality. Initiatives must be in place to ensure that all students from such groups, despite inherent obstacles, are provided various targeted opportunities to enter and excel in the educational system.

On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made :

(i) One of the cornerstones of the new education policy is inclusion.

(ii) The new education policy advocates quality education.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

(A) Assumption (i) only

(B) Assumption (ii) only

(C) Both assumptions (i) and (ii)

(D) Neither assumption (i) nor assumption (ii)

 

Q57. Feynman made sure that the radiation exposure of the inner chamber is within tolerance limits. Opening the heavy door to the scrubbing chamber, he walked in and donned a sterile gown after the door closed behind him. Feynman sat on the scrubbing bench in the sealed chamber while the air would be cleaned by the scrubber unit. After six minutes, an inner door opened. As he walked into the inner chamber and touched the object, Feynman felt a wave of excitement washing over him. On the workbench lies the object which has the capacity of replicating and unleashing power comparable to that of the sun, albeit on a much smaller scale.

Based on the paragraph above, identify which of the following statements is best acceptable.

(A) To enter the inner chamber, one has to wait for not less than six minutes in the scrubbing chamber.

(B) The atom bomb was created by a team of which Feynman was a member.

 (C) Feynman was all alone in the inner chamber when he touched the object.

(D) The Laser (gun) was designed and developed in a laboratory where Feynman worked.

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Important MCQ Questions on Rankings & Awards for APSC, ADRE, Assam Govt Exams

Important MCQ Questions on Rankings & Awards for APSC, ADRE & Govt Job Exams

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Important MCQ Questions on Awards/Prizes

Q1. Who among the following has won the Dr. Bhabendra Nath Saikia Award 2022?

  1. Pranjal Saikia
  2. Tanuj Borah
  3. Arun Nath
  4. Mousumi Lekharu

C. Arun Nath

 

Q2. Consider the following statements, with regard to Assam Valley Literary Award:

  1. The award was instituted by the Williamson Magor Group, a tea company.
  2. It is given to creative writers who have enhanced Assamese literature. 

Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. I only
  2. II only
  3. I and II 
  4. None of the above

C. I and II

  • The Assam Valley Literary Award was conceived in the year 1990 by Williamson Magor Education Trust to honour creative writers who have enhanced Assamese literature.
  • It is given to writers of Assam once a year. The award was instituted by the Williamson Magor Group, a tea company.
  • The  first recipient of the Assam Valley Literary Award was prominent Assamese writer, filmmaker and social worker Dr. Bhabendra Nath Saikia. 
  • In 2017, Sananta Tanty, Yeshe Dorjee Thongchi, Dr. Rita Chowdhury received this award. 

 

Q3. Who among the following has received the Nobel Prize 2022 in literature? 

  1. Kailash Satyarthi 
  2. Angela Merkel 
  3. Jacinda Ardern 
  4. Annie Ernaux

D. Annie Ernaux

Annie Ernaux received the Nobel Prize 2022 in literature for the bravery and clinical acuity with which she reveals the origins, estrangements, and collective restrictions of personal memory.

 

Q4. Who among the following has received the Nobel prize 2022 in Chemistry 

  1. Carolyn Bertozzi, Barry Sharpless and Douglas W. Diamond
  2. Alain Aspect, John F Clauser and Anton Zeilinger 
  3. Ben S. Bernanke, Morten Meldal and Philip H. Dybvig
  4. Morten Meldal, Carolyn Bertozzi and Barry Sharpless

D. Morten Meldal, Carolyn Bertozzi and Barry Sharpless

 

Q5. Who among the following has   won the Booker Prize 2022 for his novel “The Seven Moons of Maali Almeida”, ?

  1. Shehan Karunatilaka 
  2. Bernardine Evaristo 
  3. Geetanjali Shree
  4. Daisy Rockwell

A. Shehan Karunatilaka 


Q6. Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award 2022 was awarded to whom? 

  1. Achanta Sharath Kamal 
  2. Pullela Gopichand 
  3. Kapil Dev 
  4. Narain Karthikeyan 

A. Achanta Sharath Kamal 

Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award 2022 awarded to the Table Tennis player Achanta Sharath Kamal.

 

Q7. Who has won SASTRA Ramanujan Prize 2022? 

  1. Manjul Bhargava 
  2. Akshay Venkatesh 
  3. Yunqing Tang 
  4. Kathrin Bringmann 

C. Yunqing Tang 

The SASTRA Ramanujan Prize 2022 was awarded to Yunqing Tang, Assistant Professor at the University of California, Berkeley, USA.

 

Q8. Who has been awarded the 2022 UNESCO Peace Prize for her efforts to welcome refugees?

  1. Kailash Satyarthi 
  2. Angela Merkel 
  3. Jacinda Ardern 
  4. Sanna Marin 

B. Angela Merkel

 

Q9. Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for the year 2022 was awarded to

  1. Svante Paabo 
  2. Douglas W. Diamond 
  3. John F Clauser 
  4. Barry Sharpless

A. Svante Paabo

Svante Paabo received the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for his research on the extinct hominid genomes and the evolution of humans.

 

Q10. Who among the following has received the Nobel prize 2022 in Chemistry 

  1. Carolyn Bertozzi, Barry Sharpless and Douglas W. Diamond
  2. Alain Aspect, John F Clauser and Anton Zeilinger 
  3. Ben S. Bernanke, Morten Meldal and Philip H. Dybvig
  4. Carolyn Bertozzi,  Morten Meldal and Barry Sharpless

D. Carolyn Bertozzi, Morten Meldal, and Barry Sharpless

Carolyn Bertozzi Morten Meldal Barry Sharpless won the Nobel prize in Chemistry For the establishment of the foundations of click chemistry & bioorthogonal chemistry and also took chemistry into the functionalism era.

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Q11. Who received the 2022 World Food Prize from the World Food Prize Foundation? 

  1. Cynthia Rosenzweig 
  2. Rattan Lal 
  3. Fazle Hasan Abed
  4. Sanjaya Rajaram 

A. Cynthia Rosenzweig 

Cynthia Rosenzweig, a senior research scientist at NASA’s Goddard Institute for Space Studies (GISS), received the 2022 World Food Prize from the World Food Prize Foundation. World Food Prize is a prestigious award conceived as the ‘Nobel Prize for Food and Agriculture’. Rosenzweig was selected for the award for her research to understand the relationship between climate and food systems and forecast how they will change in the future.

 

Q12. Who among the following from Assam has been selected for the prestigious Arjuna Award 2022?

  1. Hima Das
  2. Lovlina Borgohain
  3. Nayanmoni Saikia
  4. Mirabai Chanu

C. Nayanmoni Saikia

  • Assam’s Nayanmoni Saikia was conferred with the Arjuna Award at Rashtrapati Bhawan by President Draupadi Murmu. 
  • Nayanmoni Saikia was nominated for the award for her achievements in Lawn Bowl. 
  • Apart from Nayanmoni Saikia, Shushila Devi from Manipur was also presented with the prestigious award for her remarkable contributions and achievements in the field of boxing.

 

Q13. Who among the following has been awarded with Tenzing Norgay National Adventure Awards 2021 in the Land Adventure category?

  1. Arunima Singha
  2. Arun Vajpai
  3. Ms. Naina Dhakad
  4. Debabrata Mukherjee

C. Ms. Naina Dhakad

  • The Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India announced “Tenzing Norgay Adventure Award” (TNNAA) for the year 2021.
  • The award is given in four categories which are Land Adventure, Water Adventure, Air Adventure, and Life Time Achievement.
  • Ms. Naina Dhakad  in the Land Adventure category
  • Shri Shubham Dhananjay Vanmali in the Water Adventure category.
  • Group     Captain      Kunwar     Bhawani Singh Samyal  in the Life Time Achievement category.

 

Q14. Who won the 21st Grand Slam and 7th Wimbledon title?

  1. Novak Djokovic
  2. Roger Federer
  3. Andy Murray
  4. Rafeal Nadal

A. Novak Djokovic

 

Q15. Who became the first Indian woman to win a medal at the Asian Cup Table Tennis tournament?

  1. Mouma Das
  2. Neha Aggarwal
  3. Manika Batra
  4. Ankita Das

C. Manika Batra

 

Q16. Which country won the T20 Cricket World Cup 2022?

  1. Pakistan
  2. England
  3. Australia
  4. India

B. England

In Women’s Cricket, Australia lifted the ICC T20 World Cup Trophy for the sixth time.  

 

Q17. Which country won the Asia Cup 2022?

  1. India
  2. Bangladesh
  3. Sri Lanka
  4. Pakistan 

C. Sri Lanka

 

Q18. Which country has won the FIFA World Cup 2022 title?

  1. France
  2. Portugal
  3. Argentina
  4. Russia

C. Argentina

The FIFA World Cup in 2026 is all set to be jointly hosted by the United States, Canada, and Mexico.

 

Q19. Which Indian shuttler won the ‘Singapore Open 2022’ championship title? 

  1. Lakshya Sen 
  2. Ashwini Ponnappa 
  3. Aparna Popat 
  4. P V Sindhu 

D. P V Sindhu 

  • India Ace shuttler PV Sindhu defeated China’s Wang Zhi Yi in the final match of women’s singles at the Singapore Open 2022. 
  • The two-time Olympic medallist clinched her maiden Super 500 title of the year 2022. 
  • The Singapore Open 2022 is Sindhu’s third title of the 2022 season after winning the Syed Modi International and Swiss Open BWF Super 300 titles.

Q20. Who was awarded with Natasurjya Phani Sarma award 2022?

  1. Rajen Gohain
  2. Pranjal Saikia
  3. Arun Nath 
  4. Biju Kakoti

B. Pranjal Saikia

  • The state government will confer Natasurjya Phani Sarma award on actor Pranjal Saikia for the year 2022.
  • Arun Nath will be conferred Dr. Bhabendra Nath Saikia Award 2022.
  • Music artiste Rajen Gohain and Pokhila Lekthepi will be awarded Silpi Award 2023.
  • Biju Phukan Award 2022 will be conferred to filmmaker Samarendra Narayan Dev
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ADRE 2023 Test Series Assamexam

Q21. Who was awarded with Assam Vaibhav award 2022?

  1. Sourav Kalita
  2. Shriya Lohia
  3. Tapan Saikia
  4. Jiya Rai 

C. Tapan Saikia

Dr Tapan Saikia will be conferred with the Asom Baibhav award for his contributions towards creating awareness and early detection of cancer in Assam and other Northeast states.

 

Q22. Who has been awarded the 56th Jnanpith Award in Assam?

  1. Nilomani Phukan
  2. Basistha Dev Sarma
  3. Ranjana Bardoloi
  4. Bipul Das

A. Nilomani Phukan

  • The 56th Jnanpith was awarded to Nilamani Phookan. Nilmani Phookan is the third person to win the Jnanpith Award from Assam after Mamoni Roisom Goswami and Birendra Kumar Bhattacharya. 
  • The Award carried a Citation, a shawl, and Rs. 11 lakh. 
  • Novelist Damodar Mauzo was chosen for the 57th Jnanpith Award 2021-2022 for his contribution to Indian literature. 

 

Q23. Who was conferred with Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar 2022 from Assam in Art and Culture?

  1. Dhritishman Chakraborty
  2. Puhabi Chakraborti
  3. Dhiraj Kumar
  4. Banita Dash

A. Dhritishman Chakraborty

 

Q24. Indian weightlifter from Aizawl who won gold in the 2022 Commonwealth Games? 

  1. Mirabai Chanu 
  2. Jeremy Lalrinnunga 
  3. Jaismine Lamboria 
  4. Achinta Sheuli 

C. Jeremy Lalrinnunga 

Jeremy represented India in the 2018 Summer Youth Olympics in Buenos Aires. He won the gold medal in the Boys’ 62 kg category weightlifting, India’s first gold medal in the Youth Olympics Games.

 

Q25. Who has been recently conferred with Padma Shri for preserving the traditional method of making Etikoppaka toys?

  1. Ansari Shahid Hussain
  2. Shri C V Raju
  3. Raghuram Rajan
  4. Chitra Mudgal

B. Shri C V Raju

  • Shri C V Raju from Etikoppaka village, Visakhapatnam,Andhra Pradesh has been conferred with Padma Shri for preserving the traditional method of making Etikoppaka toys.
  • Etikoppaka toys are traditional toys made by artisans of Etikoppaka village located on the banks of Varaha River in Visakhapatnam district of Andhra Pradesh.
  • Toys are made of soft wood and lacquer color. Coloured with natural dyes derived from seeds, lacquer,roots and leaves. 

 

Q26. Which Indian is to be conferred with France’s highest civilian award Chevalier de la Legion d’Honneur? 

  1. Ashwini Vaishnaw 
  2. Narendra Modi 
  3. Shashi Tharoor 
  4. Droupadi Murmu 

C. Shashi Tharoor

The French government is honouring the Shashi Tharoorfor his writings and speeches. The award is also called as the National Order of the Legion of Honour. It was established in 1802 by Napoleon Bonaparte.

 

Q27. The lawn bowler from Assam who was part of the Indian team to win its first ever gold medals in Lawn Bowls in 2022 Commonwealth Games is 

  1. Nayanmoni Saikia 
  2. Lovely Choubey 
  3. Pinki Singh 
  4. Lovlina Borgohain 

A. Nayanmoni Saikia

 

Q28. Bhupen Hazarika won the Best Music National Director award for the 

  1. Hirak Rajar Deshe
  2. Chameli Memsaab
  3. Shakuntala
  4. Asom Amar Rupahi

B. Chameli Memsaab

  • Bhupen Hazarika won the Best Music Director National Award for “Chameli Memsaab” (Chameli Memsaab; music by Bhupen Hazarika) in the 23rd National Film Awards (1975)
  • Chameli Memsaab is a 1975 Indian Assamese romantic drama film directed by Abdul Majid. A love story set in a tea estate in Assam, between a British tea estate owner and local tea garden worker. 

 

Q29. Who among the following was the first female Padma Shri Award winner from Assam? 

  1. Manju Borah 
  2. Nalini Bala Devi
  3. Nalini Prava Deka 
  4. Rita Choudhury

B. Nalini Bala Devi

 

Q30. Which city won the world Green City award 2022?

  1. Dibrugarh
  2. Mysuru
  3. Dehradun
  4. Hyderabad

D. Hyderabad

  • Hyderabad won the ‘World Green City Award” 2022. The city also won another award in the category “Living Green for Economic Recovery and Inclusive Growth”. 
  • It also won the overall ‘World Green City 2022’ award. It has been the best across all six categories. The city beats cities like Paris, Montreal, Fortaleza, Mexico City, and Bogota.
Download PDF – MCQ Questions on Awards & Rankings

ADRE 2023 Test Series Assamexam

Q31. Who has been awarded the UN Environment Programme’s (UNEP) 2022 Champions of the Earth award?

  1. Ghanashyam Mahanta
  2. Swayam Mallick
  3. Purnima Devi Barman
  4. Ajay Kumar Sahoo

C. Purnima Devi Barman

  • Indian wildlife biologist Dr Purnima Devi Barman was recently awarded with the Champions of the Earth award in the Entrepreneurial vision category , UN’s highest environmental honour. 
  • She is the founder of the Hargila Army and senior project manager of the Avifauna Research and Conservation Division, Aaranyak.



Q32. Who is the first recipient of the highest civilian award of Assam, the ‘Assam Baibhav‘? 

  1. Himanta Biswa Sarma 
  2. Ratan Tata 
  3. Sarbananda Sonowal 
  4. Bhupen Hazarika 

B. Ratan Tata 

  • Assam Baibhav is the highest civilian award in the State of Assam, India. 
  • In 2021, the Government of Assam conferred its highest civilian award, Assam Baibhav, to Ratan Tata for “his exceptional contribution towards furthering cancer care in Assam”.
  • The Award carries a cash prize of ₹5 lakh (US$6,600) and the recipient can avail medical treatment throughout his life at government expense. 
  • On 2 December 2021, Chief Minister Himanta Biswa Sarma officially declared the award on the occasion of “Asomdiwas” (Assam Day). 

 

Q33. Who has been recently awarded the UK’s Royal Order of Merit in recognition of their distinguished service to science? 

  1. C.N.R Rao 
  2. Dr Anish Ghosh 
  3. Dr Saket Saurabh
  4. Venki Ramakrishnan

D. Venki Ramakrishnan

Nobel laureate professor Venki Ramakrishnan has been awarded the prestigious Order of Merit by Britain’s King Charles III in recognition of his distinguished service to science.

 

Q34. Who was recently honoured with the ‘Changemaker’ award at UN SDG Action Awards? 

  1. Garvita Gulhati 
  2. Anisha Malik 
  3. Srishti Bakshi 
  4. Akhilesh Anil Kumar 

C. Srishti Bakshi 

Indian women’s rights activist, Srishti Bakshi was honoured with the ‘Changemaker’ award at UN SDG Action Awards.

 

Q35. Which city has won the cleanest city award in the Swachh Survekshan 2022 survey? 

  1. Indore 
  2. Hyderabad
  3. Surat
  4. Mysuru

A. Indore

  • Indore has won the cleanest city award in the Swachh Survekshan 2022 for the sixth consecutive year in the ‘more than 1 lakh population’ category.
  • Surat was adjudged the second cleanest city, for the second time in a row. Navi Mumbai bagged the third spot. 
  • Indore further cemented its position by emerging as India’s first 7-star Garbage Free city, while Surat, Bhopal, Mysuru, Navi Mumbai, Vishakhapatnam, and Tirupati earned 5-star Garbage Free certifications. 
  • Madhya Pradesh emerged as the ‘Cleanest State’ in the category of “more than 100 Urban Local Bodies”, relegating Chhattisgarh, the Cleanest State of the previous 3 years, to second place. Maharashtra emerged as third cleanest State.  
  • Tripura emerged as the Cleanest State award in the “less than 100 ULBs category”, dislodging Jharkhand, which had won in the last 2 consecutive years

 

Q36. Which of the following product from Assam got Geographical Indication (GI) recently in December 2022?

  1. Judima
  2. Boka Saul
  3. Gamocha
  4. Joha rice

C. Gamocha

  • ‘Gamocha’, which is a symbol of the culture and identity of Assam, has received the Geographical Indication (GI) tag from the central government.
  • A Geographical Indication (GI) is tagged to primarily agricultural, natural or manufactured products, handicrafts and industrial goods originating from a definite geographical territory. 
  • The GI tag has been registered in favour of the Directorate of Handloom & Textiles of the Assam government under the Geographical Indication of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999.

 

Q37. Who among the following has been conferred with the Swami Vivekananda Karmayogi Award 2020?

  1. Purnima Devi Barman
  2. Jadav Payeng
  3. Salim Moizuddin Abdul Ali
  4. M. S. Swaminathan

B. Jadav Payeng

  • Forest Man of India Jadav Payeng was awarded Swami Vivekananda Karmayogi Award 2020. He was awarded the 6th Karmayogi Award for his consistent efforts in creating a real man-made forest through massive reforestation. 
  • Swami Vivekananda Smriti Karmayogi Award is organized by My Home India in New Delhi. The award was conferred for the first time in 2013. The award is composed of a trophy, a recitation and a reward of Rs 1 lakh. 
  • Karmayogi Award is presented to great personalities from North-Eastern India who dedicate their lives to Nation and promote Nationalism through art & culture, sports, education, etc. for their contribution to respective fields.



Q38. Who among the following was the first Assamese writer to receive the Jnanpith Award?

  1. Mamoni Raisom Goswami
  2. Birendra Kumar Bhattacharya 
  3. Bhattadeva 
  4. Chandrasekhar Kambar

B. Birendra Kumar Bhattacharya

  • Birendra Kumar Bhattacharya was the first ever Assamese writer to receive the Jnanpith Award, which was awarded to him in the year 1979 for his novel Mrityunjay.
  • Mamoni Raisom Goswami was the winner of the Jnanpith Award for the year 2000. 

 

Q39. Who among the following was conferred the 56th Jnanpith Award?

  1. Amitav Ghosh
  2. Mamoni Raisom Goswami
  3. Kedarnath Singh
  4. Nilamani Phookan

D. Nilamani Phookan

 

Q40. Who was chosen for the 57th Jnanpith Award 2022 for his contribution to Indian literature?

  1. G. Sankara Kurup 
  2. Sankha Ghosh 
  3. Akkitham Achuthan Namboothiri 
  4. Damodar Mauzo

D. Damodar Mauzo



Important MCQ Questions on Ranks of International & National indices

Q41. What is the rank of India in the Global Sustainable Development Report, 2022?

  1. 118
  2. 115
  3. 121
  4. 125

C. 121

  • Finland is in the top position in the Global Sustainable Development Report, 2022. 
  • India ranked 120 in the Global Sustainable Development Report, 2021

 

Q42. What is the rank of India in the World Happiness Report 2022?

  1. 132
  2. 180
  3. 136
  4. 144

C. 136 

  • India ranked 136th in the World Happiness Report 2022. 
  • Finland is in the top position in the world happiness report in 2022. 
  • India ranked 139th in World Happiness Report 2021.

 

Q43. What is the rank of India in the Global Peace Index 2022?

  1. 144
  2. 135
  3. 112
  4. 117

B. 135

 

Q44. What is the rank of India in the Commitment to Reducing Inequality Index (CRII) 2022?

  1. 180
  2. 146
  3. 37
  4. 123

D. 123

  • According to the latest Commitment to Reducing Inequality Index (CRII), India has moved up six places to rank 123 out of 161 countries for reducing inequality.
  • Norway leads the CRII followed by Germany and Australia.

 

Q45. What is the rank of India in the Network Readiness Index (NR) 2022?

  1. 40th
  2. 76th
  3. 61st
  4. 106th 

C. 61st 

 

Q46. Which institution releases the ‘Global Gender Gap Report’? 

  1. World Economic Forum (WEF) 
  2. International Monetary Fund (IMF)
  3. International Labour Organization (ILO) 
  4. International Court of Justice 

A. World Economic Forum (WEF) 

Iceland (90.8%) led the Global Gender Gap Index 2022 ranking in the first place. India is ranked at 135 out of 146 countries. Last year, India was ranked 140 out of 156 countries.

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Q47. Which country is the top-most investor in India during fiscal year 2021-22?

  1. USA
  2. China
  3. Singapore
  4. UAE

C. Singapore

  • India has recorded the highest ever annual FDI inflow of USD 83.57 billion in the Financial Year 2021-22. FDI equity inflow in manufacturing sectors has increased by 76 per cent in 2021-22. 
  • Singapore was the topmost investor in India last fiscal year, accounting for 27% of the FDI, followed by the US at 18% and Mauritius at 16%. In 2020-21, the inflows were USD 81.97 billion.



Q48. What is the rank of India in the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) 2021?

  1. 5th
  2. 7th
  3. 9th
  4. 10th

B. 7th

 

Q49. As per UN report ‘World Population Prospects 2022’, India is projected to surpass China as the world’s most populous country in which year? 

  1. 2023 
  2. 2026 
  3. 2030 
  4. 2033 

D. 2023 

  • According to the report, India’s population stands at 1.412 billion in 2022, compared to China’s 1.426 billion. 
  • India, which will surpass China as the world’s most populous nation by 2023. 
  • India is projected to have a population of 1.668 billion in 2050, way ahead of China’s 1.317 billion people by the middle of the century. 
  • The global population is projected to reach eight billion by November 15, 2022, and could grow to around 8.5 billion in 2030 and 9.7 billion in 2050.

 

Q50. Which is ranked first in the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) 2022? 

  1. IIT Madras 
  2. IISc Bangalore 
  3. IIT Kharagpur 
  4. Jawaharlal Nehru University 

A. IIT Madras

  • The Ministry of Education has released the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) for the year 2022. 
  • Indian Institute of Technology Madras has retained its first position for the fourth consecutive year in the overall category and for the seventh consecutive year in Engineering. Indian 
  • Institute of Technology, Delhi was ranked second while Indian Institute of Technology, Bombay, was ranked third.

 

Q51. Which state is ranked first in the NITI Aayog’s India Innovation Index (2021)? 

  1. Kerala 
  2. Tamil Nadu 
  3. Telangana 
  4. Karnataka 

D. Karnataka

  • Karnataka has been ranked first in the NITI Aayog’s India Innovation Index (2021) for the third time in a row. The first edition was released in October 2019. 
  • India Innovation Index ranks states and union territories on the basis of innovation capabilities. 
  • Manipur topped the ‘North East and Hill States’ section. 
  • Chandigarh won the ‘Union Territory and City States’ category. 
  • TOP State Ranks:  Karnataka Telangana Haryana Maharashtra

 

Q52. Which state has emerged as an overall team champion of the North East Olympic Games 2022?

  1. Assam
  2. Meghalaya
  3. Mizoram
  4. Manipur

D. Manipur

  • The 2nd edition of the North East Olympic Games concluded in Shillong, Meghalaya with Manipur emerging as the overall team champion with a total of 240 medals which included 88 Gold Medals, 75 Silver Medals, and 77 Bronze Medals.
  • Assam took the second spot with a total of 203 medals followed by Arunachal Pradesh.

 

Q53. Which Indian state has topped the Public Affairs Index (PAI) 2022?

  1. Tamil Nadu
  2. Assam
  3. Haryana
  4. Odisha

C. Haryana

  • Haryana topped in the category of big states in the Public Affairs Index-2022. The state has emerged at the forefront in social, economic and political justice themes. 
  • It has topped among the major states followed by Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Chhattisgarh, Punjab and Karnataka among many other states.



Q54. What is India’s rank in the 2020 Democracy Index?

  1. 56
  2. 73
  3. 86
  4. 93

D. 93

  • India was ranked 93rd in the LDI, India figures in the “bottom 50%” of countries. 
  • It has slipped further down in the Electoral Democracy Index, to 100, and even lower in the Deliberative Component Index, at 102.

 

Q55. What is the rank of India in the global aviation safety ranking?

  1. 110
  2. 65
  3. 48
  4. 132

C. 48

  • India ranked 48th position in the global aviation safety ranking by the International Civil Aviation Organization. 
  • India was in the 102nd position four years ago in the ranking.The position is the highest-ever spot attained by the country. 
  • In the ranking, Singapore is at the top, followed by the UAE and South Korea at the second and third positions.

 

Q56. Which of the following states of India has the highest rank in the Human Development Index 2022?

  1. Madhya Pradesh
  2. Kerala
  3. Punjab
  4. Goa

B. Kerala

 

Q57. India’s rank in the ‘Renewable Energy Country Attractiveness Index’ released recently by the consultancy firm Ernst & Young (EY)?

  1. 1st
  2. 2nd 
  3. 3rd 
  4. 4th 

C. 3rd

 

Q58. Which state tops in the State of India’s Environment Report 2022?

  1. Sikkim
  2. Kerala
  3. Himachal Pradesh
  4. Goa

B. Kerala

  • The State of India’s Environment Report 2022 was released by the Center for Science and Environment (CSE). 
  • India has slipped three spots to rank 120 on the 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) adopted as a part of the 2030 agenda by 192 United Nations member states in 2015.
  • In 2021 India ranked 117 among 192 nations. The overall Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) score of India was 66 out of 100. 
  • Kerala topped, with Tamil Nadu and Himachal Pradesh in second position. Karnataka, Goa, Uttarakhand, and Andhra Pradesh tied for third place.
  • Jharkhand and Bihar are the least prepared to meet the SDGs by the target year 2030. 
  • Union Territory Rankings: Chandigarh topped among the Union Territories, followed by Delhi, Puducherry, and Lakshadweep in second place, and the Andaman & Nicobar Islands in the third position.

Q59. India’s rank among the biggest oil-importing and consuming nations of the world? 

  1. Second 
  2. Third 
  3. Fourth 
  4. Fifth 

B. Third 

  • India is the third largest consumer of crude oil in the world, after the United States and China.
  • Iraq has been India’s top supplier for the past few years, staying ahead of Saudi Arabia, which has been producing less than its capacity to meet OPEC supply curb commitments. 
  • Saudi Arabia was the biggest supplier of crude oil to China, the biggest oil importer in the world in 2020.

 

Q60. What is the rank of India in the Global Hunger Index 2022?

  1. 102
  2. 99
  3. 107
  4. 77

C. 107

In the 2022 Global Hunger Index, India ranks 107th out of 121 countries.

 

Q61. What is the rank of India in the world economy 2022?

  1. 9th
  2. 6th
  3. 5th
  4. 8th

C. 5th 

  • According to the World Economy Ranking 2022 India’s GDP is the fifth largest GDP in the world.
  • India has surpassed UK to become the fifth largest economy in the world and it contributes 3.5% of the world’s GDP. India has a nominal GDP of 3.8 trillion dollars in 2022.

 

Q62. What is the rank of India in the world, by purchasing power parity (PPP)?

  1. Fifth
  2. Third
  3. Fourth
  4. Sixth

B. Third

India is the third-largest economy in the world in PPP terms and the fifth-largest in market exchange rates.

 

Q63. What is the rank of India in the Global Innovation Index 2022?

  1. 48th
  2. 53rd
  3. 40th
  4. 62nd

A. 40th 

India ranked 40th for the first time in the Global Innovation Index Ranking. India ranked 46th in the Global Innovation Index (GII), 2021.

 

Q64. What is the rank of India in the World Competitiveness Index (WCI) 2022?

  1. 37
  2. 43
  3. 51
  4. 29

A. 37

    • The Index has been compiled by the Institute for Management Development (IMD).
    • IMD is a Swiss foundation, based in Switzerland. The IMD World Competitiveness Yearbook (WCY), first published in 1989.
    • Denmark has topped the list followed by Switzerland in second place and Singapore in third place.
    • India has come up to 37th rank in 2022 from 43rd in 2021 in the World Competitive Index.

 

Q65. As per Human Development Report 2021-22, India’s rank on the Human Development Index 2022 is

  1. 125th
  2. 132nd
  3. 140th
  4. 117th

B. 132nd

  • India ranks 132 out of 191 countries and territories on the 2021/22 Human Development Index. India’s HDI value stood at 0.633 in 2021. 
  • The theme of the HDR 2021-22 which was compiled amidst the COVID Pandemic is “Uncertain Times, Unsettled Lives: Shaping our Future in a Transforming World”.
  • Recently, the World Economic Forum (WEF) ranked India at 135 out of 146 countries in its Global Gender Gap (GGG) Index for 2022.

 

Q66. Which of the following is an INCORRECT match of Global Index and India’s Ranking in it? 

  1. Global Hunger Index – India’s rank 107th 
  2. Henley Passport Index 2022 – India’s rank 68th 
  3. Global Crypto Adoption Index 2022 – India’s rank 4th 
  4. World Competitiveness Index 2022 – India’s rank 37th 

B. Henley Passport Index 2022 – India’s rank 87th

 

Q67. Which state topped the Business Reform Action Plan 2020′ (BARP) ranking?

  1. Punjab 
  2. Andhra Pradesh
  3. Gujarat
  4. Haryana

B. Andhra Pradesh

  • Government released the ‘State Business Reform Action Plan 2020’ (BARP) ranking which shows how Indian states have fared in enhancing Ease of Doing Business for an Aatmanirbhar Bharat. 
  • Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman released the 2020 rankings in which Andhra Pradesh retained the number one ranking.
  • Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Haryana, Karnataka, Punjab, Tamil Nadu and Telangana are the Top Achievers based on implementation of Business Reforms Action Plan. 
  • Himachal Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh figure under the Achievers category. 
  • Assam, Chhattisgarh, Goa, Jharkhand, Kerala, Rajasthan and West Bengal have been placed in the Aspirers category.
  • Andaman & Nicobar, Bihar, Chandigarh, Daman & Diu, Dadra & Nagar Haveli, Delhi, Jammu & Kashmir, Manipur, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Puducherry and Tripura have been clubbed under the Emerging Business Ecosystems category.



Q68. What is the rank of India in the Environmental Performance Index (EPI) 2022?

  1. 168th
  2. 151st
  3. 180th
  4. 106th

C. 180th

  • The rank of India in the Environmental Performance Index (EPI) 2022 is 180th. 
  • The Environmental Performance Index (EPI) is an international ranking system of countries based on their environmental health. 
  • It is a biennial index, first started in 2002 as the Environment Sustainability Index by the World Economic Forum in collaboration with the Yale Centre for Environmental Law and Policy and Columbia University Center for International Earth Information Network.
  • India ranked 168th in the Environmental Performance Index (EPI) in 2020 while it ranked 177th  in 2018.

 

Q69. With reference to Climate Change Performance Index, Consider the following statements: 

  1. The Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) is released every year at the UN Climate Change Conference. 
  2. The index was released jointly by Germanwatch, NewClimate Institute and Climate Action Network.
  3. India has ranked 8th in the Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) 2023.

Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. Only I
  2. II and III
  3. I and III
  4. All of the above

D. All of the above

  • The Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) is released every year at the UN Climate Change Conference. 
  • Climate Change Performance Index 2023 was released jointly by Germanwatch, NewClimate Institute and Climate Action Network.
  • India has ranked 8th in the Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) 2023 published by German Watch, New Climate Institute and Climate Action Network International based in Germany.
  • Published annually since 2005, the Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) is an independent monitoring tool for tracking the climate protection performance of 59 countries and the EU.
  • It aims to enhance transparency in international climate politics and enables comparison of climate protection efforts and progress made by individual countries. 

 

Q70. What is the rank of India in the Global Democracy Index (GDI) 2022?

  1. 46th
  2. 93rd
  3. 76th
  4. 57th

B. 93rd

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