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Preliminary Examination of APSC CC Exam 2023-24 consists of two papers: (1) Paper-I (General Studies I) and (2) Paper-II (General Studies II) a.k.a. CSAT paper consisting of 200 Marks each. Each paper is of Multiple-Choice Questions of total 200 marks. Paper-II is of qualifying nature with minimum qualifying marks fixed at 33%.
This Test Series is carefully crafted to focus proportionately on relevant concepts and facts to help the aspirants prepare well for the Preliminary exam and help them score well above the qualifying marks to make them clear the Preliminary Examination and qualify for the Mains Examination of APSC CCE 2023-24.
PROGRAM APPROACH
The Test Series consist of Twelve Full-length Tests of 200 Marks each. Entire syllabus of the Paper-I (General Studies I) and Paper-II (General Studies II a.k.a. CSAT) paper will be covered in Nine Full-length Tests and Three Full-length Tests, respectively. As per schedule, PDF format of the Test Question Paper will also be mailed to the participants’ registered email. PDF format of Answer/Solution sheets will be mailed in 2/3 days. Limited study materials will be uploaded in the websitewww.assamexam.com.
APSC CCE (Prelim) 2023-24 Test Series
TEST SCHEDULE & SYLLABUS SPLIT-UP
Test
Sections Covered
Test Date
Solution/
Answer Date
1
History of India and Indian National Movement. (30%Qs related to Assam)
10-02-2024
T+3 days
2
Indian and World Geography-Physical, Social, Economic Geography of India and the World. (30%Qs related to Assam)
14-02-2024
T+3 days
3
GS Paper II (CSAT) Mock Test
16-02-2024
T+3 days
4
Indian Polity and Governance-Constitution, Political System, Panchayati Raj, Public Policy, Rights issues etc. (30%Qs related to Assam)
19-02-2024
T+3 days
5
Economic and Social Development-Sustainable Development, Poverty, Inclusion, Demographics, Social Sector Initiatives, etc. (30%Qs related to Assam)
23-02-2024
T+3 days
6
General issues on Environment ecology, Bio-Diversity and Climate Change + General Science. (30%Qs related to Assam)
Adhikary Education reserves all rights related to Enrollment to the Test Series.
Adhikary Education reserves all rights to make any change/modify/cancel exam(s) schedule without any prior information, if need so arises.
Adhikary Education’s materials/services are for individuals use only. In case any person is found Involved in any violation of copyrights of Adhikary Education materials, the admission to the test series will be cancelled and legal actions may be taken.
The candidates enrolling in the test series, needs to provide Roll No. and other details, as and when asked to do so. This information will not be shared with any other party, without your consent.
Fee once paid, is non-refundable and non-transferable in all circumstances.
Provision(s) of ‘Payment Terms and Conditions’ of www.assamexam.com/terms-conditions/ will be applicable for payment in regard to this test series also.
APSC’s Research Assistant (in Planning Services under Transformation and Development Department) Exam 2023 consist of only one General Studies (GS) paper consisting of 200 Marks Multiple-Choice Questions from twelve areas of new syllabus of the General Studies subject. This Test Series is carefully crafted to focus proportionately on relevant concepts and facts to help the aspirants prepare well for the actual exam and help them score well above the qualifying marks to make them clear them Written Examination and qualify for Interview Test for APSC’s Research Assistant selection process.
PROGRAM APPROACH
The Test Series consist of Eight Tests of 100 MCQ Questions each. All the twelve sections/areas of the General Studies (GS) Paper will be covered in Five Sectional Tests and Three Mock Tests will consist of questions covering full syllabus. On the exam scheduled date, we will provide links to attempt Online Tests and PDF format of Question Paper will also be mailed to your registered email. Answers and Marks scored by you will be available immediately after you complete the online Test. PDF format of Answer Keys will be mailed to participants in 2/3 days. Limited study materials will be uploaded in the website www.assamexam.com.
Research Assistant 2023 TEST SERIES
(in Planning Services under Transformation and Development Department)
TEST SCHEDULE & SYLLABUS SPLIT-UP
Test
Sections Covered
Test Date
Solution/
Answer Date
1
Mock Test 1 (Whole Syllabus)
18-07-2023
21-07-2023
2
Indian History & National Movement
Assam History
23-07-2023
T+3 days
3
Geography (lndia & Assam)
lndian Polity & Constitution of lndia
28-07-2023
T+3 days
4
Economy of lndia & Assam
Environment of Assam
Literature, Culture & Festivals of Assam
02-08-2023
T+3 days
5
Mock Test 2 (Whole Syllabus)
06-08-2023
T+3 days
6
Current Affairs (lndia & Assam)
Sports/Books/Authors and Important People of Assam
Adhikary Education reserves all rights related to Enrollment to the Test Series.
Adhikary Education reserves all rights to make any change/modify/cancel exam(s) schedule without any prior information, if need so arises.
Adhikary Education’s materials/services are for individuals use only. In case any person is found Involved in any violation of copyrights of Adhikary Education materials, the admission to the test series will be cancelled and legal actions may be taken.
The candidates enrolling in the test series, needs to provide Roll No. and other details, as and when asked to do so. This information will not be shared with any other party, without your consent.
Fee once paid, is non-refundable and non-transferable in all circumstances.
Provision(s) of ‘Payment Terms and Conditions’ of www.assamexam.com/terms-conditions/ will be applicable for payment in regard to this test series also.
Among the Four Papers of Written Test for Assam Forest Rangers, General Knowledge Paper is very crucial and needs special attention, because it covers vast areas of General Studies (but very high scoring if you know what is important and what is not) and it’s common paper for all. English paper is of subjective nature and other two Optional subject papers are very specific and will only depend upon candidate’s subject knowledge. See Exam Format details here
ProgramApproach
Test Series cover all topics of General Knowledge (GK) Paper in 8 Full-length Tests.
Tests will be delivered in both Online Test mode and PDF format.
Answer Keys/Solution PDF will be mailed to participants.
Tests act both as learning resources and an opportunity to gauge level of your exam preparedness at regular intervals.
Limited study materials will be uploaded in website assamexam.com
Geography of India & Assam AND Environment & Ecology
2
History of India & Assam AND Art and Culture of India & Assam
3
Economy of India & Assam AND Polity of India & Assam
4
Science & Tech, General Aptitude, Current Affairs of India & Assam, India State of Forest Report, Union Budget, Assam Budget, Economic Survey, important reports
5
Geography of India & Assam AND Environment & Ecology
6
History of India & Assam, Art and Culture of India & Assam, Economy of India & Assam AND Polity of India & Assam
7
Science & Tech, General Aptitude, Current Affairs of India & Assam, India State of Forest Report, Union Budget, Assam Budget, Economic Survey, important reports
8
Full Mock Test
NOTE : Adhikary Education Reserves the rights to change dates, patterns and no. of Tests, without any prior notice.
STEPS TO ENROLL& TESTS
Please Go To Link APSC Forest Ranger Test Series 2022 – GK Paper and click ‘ENROL NOW’
Pay the ENROLMENT FEE, after entering Name, Email and Phone number correctly.
To join go to APSC Forest Ranger Test Series 2022 – GK Paper. Have a Query/ Doubt? – Call us at 6380945893 or mailto: adhikaryedu@gmail.com.AssamExam.com | Adhikary Education
95 Marks from Adhikary Education Mains Test Series
95 marksworth Questions were asked inAPSC CCE (Main) 2018 – History Paper 1 which were asked in our APSC Mains Test Series 2018 (History Optional). This is a testimony to our continuous efforts to provide the best quality materials for the APSC Prelims and Mains Exam 2018 to assist better preparation of the aspirants.
APSC CCE (Main) 2018 History - Paper I
PART – A
Answer any eight questions from the following within 250 words each: 20 x 8 = 160
Q1. Narrate the direct and indirect effects of Alexander’s invasion of India. 10+10=20
Question from our APSC Mains History Test Series Test 1: Q3. (20 Marks)
Q2. What were the causes for the downfall of the Mauryan empire? How far was the religious policy of Ashoka responsible for it? 12+8=20
Question from our APSC Mains History Test Series Test 1: Q14. (12 Marks)
Q3. Make an assessment of the career and achievements of Harshavardhana. How far did his relationship with Bhaskaravarmana help him in establishing his supremacy over North India? 15+5=20
Question from our APSC Mains History Test Series Test 1: Q9. (5 Marks) (Indirectly)
Q4. “The most illustrious successors of the Mauryas in the Decan and in Central India were the Satavahanas”. On the basis of the above statement highlight the contribution of the Satavahana rulers towards administration, economy and culture. 20
Q5. What were the causes and results of the Arab invasion of Sind? Why did they fail to penetrate deeper into India? 15+5=20
Q6. Critically analyse the administrative system of Sher Shah Suri with special reference to his land revenue system. To what extent did it serve as the basis of land revenue system of Akbar? 15+5=20
Question from our APSC Mains History Test Series Test 2: Q4. (15 Marks)
Q7. “Akbar is regarded as a national monarch”. Justify this statement in the light of his civil and military administration, religious policy and policy towards the Rajputs. 20
Question from our APSC Mains History Test Series Test 2: Q11. and Test 7: Q4. (10 Marks)
Q8.What was the permanent settlement system of Bengal introduced by Lord Cornwallis? To what extent did it prove beneficial to the British rule in India? What were its effects on the Indians? 8+6+6= 20
Q9. Discuss the causes, main events and results of the Fourth Anglo-Maratha War (1817-18). 8+4+8=20
Question from our APSC Mains History Test Series Test 3: Q5 (20 Marks) (Indirectly)
Q10. Why was Bengal partitioned in 1905? What were its consequences in India’s struggle for freedom? 10+10= 20
Q11. Analyse the Constitutional developments in British India during the period from 1909 to 1935. 20
Q12. What was the impact of the World War II on India’s national movement? Why did Indian National Congress oppose the August offer (1940) and the Cripp’s proposal (1942)? 12+8=20
PART – B
Answer any five questions from the following within 150 words each:
Q13. How did the people of Harappan civilization maintain relations with other contemporary civilization? 8
Question from our APSC Mains History Test Series Test 1: Q2 (8 Marks) (Indirectly)
Q14. Who were the Rashtrakutas? Examine their contributions to the field of education and teaching. 3+5=8
Q15. Analyse the role played by Qutb-ud-in Aibak and Iltutmish in the foundation of Islamic rule in India. 4+4=8
Q16. Make an assessment of Alauddin Khilji as an administrator. 8
Q17. Describe Shivaji’s struggle with the Mughals. How far was he able to provide the Marathas a nation-state? 5+3=8
Question from our APSC Mains History Test Series Test 7: Q8 (5 Marks)
Q18. How did English education help in the promotion of nationalism in India in the later part of the 19th century? 8
Q19. Describe the main features of the Government of India Act, 1935. How did it influence Indian polity? 5+3=8
Q20. Analyse the factors that led to the Partition of India in 1947. Was the Viceroy Lord Mountbatten responsible for the Partition? 6+2=8
A total questions worth 95 Marks in APSC CC(Mains) Exam 2018 – History Paper 1, were matched with the questions of our APSC Mains History Test Series.
145 Marks from Adhikary Education Mains Test Series
145 marksworth Questions were asked inAPSC CCE (Main) 2018 – Political Science Paper 2 which were asked in our APSC Mains Test Series 2018 (Pol. Sc. Optional). This is a testimony to our continuous efforts to provide the best quality materials for the APSC Prelims and Mains Exam 2018 to assist better preparation of the aspirants.
APSC Mains 2018 Political Science - Paper II
PART – A
Answer any eight questions from the following within 250 words each: 20 x 8 = 160
Q1. Discuss the framing of the Constitution of India emphasizing on the role of the Constituent Assembly. Justify the statement that ‘Indian Constitution is the document of socio-economic basis and philosophy’. 12+8=20
Q2. Define secularism. Examine critically the working of the concept of secularism in Indian context. 5+15=20
Question from our APSC Mains Political Science Test Series Test 8: Q4 (15 Marks) (Partially)
Q3. Discuss the main features of Fundamental Rights incorporated in the Constitution of India. Why are these rights termed as fundamental? Can Fundamental Rights be amended? 10+5+5=20
Question from our APSC Mains Political Science Test Series Test 3: Q9 (10 Marks)
Q4. Discuss the reasons for incorporation of the Directive Principles in the Constitution. Examine the relevance and implementation of these Principles in India. 8+12=20
Question from our APSC Mains Political Science Test Series Test 3: Q13 (20 Marks) (Indirectly)
Q5. Explain the method of election of the President of India. What are it’s drawbacks? Examine the position of the President of India. 10+5+5=20
Question from our APSC Mains Political Science Test Series Test 6: Q1 (5 Marks)
Q6. Evaluate the factors responsible for the growth of centralizing tendency in Indian polity. Is India a true federation? Give your arguments. 12+8=20
Question from our APSC Mains Political Science Test Series Test 7: Q4. (8 Marks) (Indirectly)
Q7. Discuss the organization, power and functions of the Union Cabinet. How do you account for the strong position of the Cabinet in Indian political system? 12+8=20
Q8. Critically examine the role of the Governor of an Indian State. What are the discretionary powers of the Governor of Assam? 12+8=20
Question from our APSC Mains Political Science Test Series Test 3: Q4 & Test 8: Q5. (20 Marks)
Q9. What is Money Bill? Discuss the procedure for enactment of Money Bill in the Indian Parliament. 5+15=20
Q10. Discuss the functioning of local self-government in Assam. What is the role of the local self-governing institutions in the development of the region? 15+5= 20
Question from our APSC Mains Political Science Test Series Test 4: Q4. (15 Marks)
Q11. “The American Senate is regarded as the strongest Second Chamber of the world.” Analyse this statement relating to power, functions and position of the Senate of the United State if America. 20
Question from our APSC Mains Political Science Test Series Test 2: Q8. (20 Marks)
Q12. Define the composition and functioning of the Union Public Service Commission emphasizing its independence and neutrality. 20
PART – B
Answer any five questions from the following within 150 words each:
Q13. Explain legislative relations between the Centre and the States in India. 8
Question from our APSC Mains Political Science Test Series Test 3: Q3. (8 Marks)
Q14. Critically evaluate the role of the United Nations in maintaining international peace and security. 8
Question from our APSC Mains Political Science Test Series Test 4: Q7. (8 Marks)
Q15. Examine the role of the Supreme Court in India with special reference to the court’s power of judicial review. 8
Q16. Discuss the various constitutional and statutory provisions of acquiring and loss of Indian citizenship. 4+4=8
Question from our APSC Mains Political Science Test Series Test 3: Q2. (8 Marks)
Q17. Evaluate the procedure for the amendment of the American Constitution. 8
Question from our APSC Mains Political Science Test Series Test 4: Q1. (8 Marks)
Q18. How is the British Cabinet formed? Enumerate the main features of British Cabinet system. 4+4=8
Q19. Discuss Prof. Dicey’s concept of Rule of Law emphasizing on its applicability and limitations in England. 5+3=8
Q20. What is the full form of PIL? Discuss the features of PIL. 3+5=8
A total questions worth 145 Marks in APSC CC(Mains) Exam 2018 – Polity Paper 1, were matched with the questions of our APSC Mains Political Science Test Series.
166 Marks from Adhikary Education Mains Test Series
166 marksworth Questions were asked inAPSC CCE (Main) 2018 – Political Science Paper 1 which were asked in our APSC Mains Test Series 2018 (Pol. Sc. Optional). This is a testimony to our continuous efforts to provide the best quality materials for the APSC Prelims and Mains Exam 2018 to assist better preparation of the aspirants.
APSC CCE (Main) 2018 Political Science - Paper I
PART – A
Answer any eight questions from the following within 250 words each: 20 x 8 = 160
Q1. Discuss the nature and scope of political science. Discuss in details the legal approach to the study of political science. 10+10=20
Question from our APSC Mains Political Science Test Series Test 5: Q1 (10 Marks)
Q2. What are the different theories of the origin of the State? Discuss the evolutionary theory of the origin of the State? 10+10=20
Q3. Discuss the essential elements of a State. Discuss the difference between State and Society. 10+10=20
Question from our APSC Mains Political Science Test Series Test 1: Q2 (20 Marks)
Q4. Discuss the difference between unitary and federal forms of government. Write the characteristics of a federal form of government. 10+10=20
Q5. What are the pre-requisites of a parliamentary form of government? Discuss its merits. 10+10=20
Question from our APSC Mains Political Science Test Series Test 7: Q1 (10 Marks)
Q6. Discuss critically the pluralist theory of sovereignty. 20
Question from our APSC Mains Political Science Test Series Test 2: Q7 (20 Marks)
Q7. Discuss the functions of the judiciary. What do you mean by judicial review? Discuss its importance. 10+5+5=20
Question from our APSC Mains Political Science Test Series Test 3: Q5 (15 Marks)
Q8. Discuss the social contract theory with reference to Hobbes, Locke and Rousseau. 20
Question from our APSC Mains Political Science Test Series Test 7: Q13 (20 Marks)
Q9. What do you mean by a Welfare State? Discuss the functions of a Welfare State. 10+10=20
Question from our APSC Mains Political Science Test Series Test 5: Q9 and Test 1: Q4 (10 Marks)
Q10. Discuss the theory of separation of power. How far is this theory applicable in India? 10+10= 20
Question from our APSC Mains Political Science Test Series Test 2: Q3 (20 Marks)
Q11. What do you mean by the term ’function of the State’? Critically evaluate the ‘Laissez-faire theory of the State. 20
Question from our APSC Mains Political Science Test Series Test 1: Q5 And Test 5: Q11 (5 Marks)
Q12. Define ‘Sovereignty’. Discuss the different kinds of sovereignty. 5+15=20
Question from our APSC Mains Political Science Test Series Test 5: Q9 (20 Marks)
PART – B
Answer any five questions from the following within 150 words each:
Q13. Discuss Aristotle’s theory on revolution. 8
Question from our APSC Mains Political Science Test SeriesTest 1: Q9. (8 Marks)
Q14. Discuss Plato’s conception of Justice. What are the demerits of Platonic justice? 4+4=8
Q15. Discuss Marx’s theory on Class Struggle. 8
Question from our APSC Mains Political Science Test Series Test 1: Q10. (8 Marks)
Q16. Discuss J. S. Mill’s view on liberty. 8
Q17. Explain the concept of Satyagraha. What are its techniques? 4+4=8
Q18. Discuss the merits of Presidential form of government. 8
Q19. What is law? What are the various sources of law? 4+4=8
Q20. Discuss the importance of study of Political Science. How does it differ from History? 4+4=8
A total questions worth 166 Marks in APSC CC(Mains) Exam 2018 – Polity Paper 1, were matched with the questions of our APSC Mains Political Science Test Series.
Q1. Down to Earth, a science and environment fortnightly is published by the
(C) Centre for Science and Environment
Q2. Ozone layer is found in atmosphere approximately in between
(A) 10km-17km
Explanation: Most ozone (about 90%) resides in a layer that begins between 6 and 10 miles (10 and 17 kilometers) above the Earth’s surface and extends up to about 30 miles (50 kilometers).
Q3. Which of the following is not a characteristic of green product?
(D) Factory products with green colour
Q4. Which one of the following is not a method of in situ conservation of biodiversity?
(D) Botanical Garden
Q5. Find out the largest fraction.
(B) 4/5
Q6. The pattern of drainage of the river Brahmaputra is known as
(A) Braided
Q7. Natural vegetation of Assam is basically
(A) tropical moist deciduous
Q8. The largest area of the Brahmaputra basin falls in the territory of
(C) China
Q9. The average rainfall of Assam is all about
(C) 212cm
Q10. How many bamboo species are available in Assam?
(C) 42
Q11. Which one of the following is not a Tiger Reserve in Assam?
(D) Dibru-Saikhowa
Q12. Which of the following is not an Elephant reserve in Assam?
(B) Pabitara
Q13. The Bhakra Hydroelectric Power Project uses the water of
(B) Sutlej River
Q14. Which of the following countries has the largest reserve of coal?
(A) USA
Q15. Which of the following elements is found in highest quantity in the crust of the earth?
(A) Oxygen
Q16. Name the state that does not have any wind power prospective sites.
(C) Uttar Pradesh
Q17. Which of the following States of India shares boundaries with six other States?
(D) Chhattisgarh
Explanation: The answer is correct considering Telangana and Andhra Pradesh as one. The Question may be old.
Q18. Which one of the following is the smallest State of India in terms of population?
(B) Sikkim
Q19. The fuel having high ignition temperature is
(D) Wood
Q20. Bhopal gas tragedy in 1984 was caused by
(C) Methyl isocyanate
Q21. Which of the following is a cold desert?
(D) Gobi
Q22. The Lake Superior, the largest fresh water lake, is located in
(B) The USA
Explanation: Lake Superior is cshared by both Canada and the US. It’s total surface area in 82,000 sq, km (of which 29,000 sq.km in Canada). So, more area in the US.
Q23. The headquarters of the UNESCO is located in
(D) Paris
Q24. The modern Olympic Games were started in Athens in the year
(B) 1896
Q25. Indian sprinter Hima Das won gold medal in 4x400m relay in the Asian Games held in
(C) Indonesia
Q26. Which one of the following is the cheapest means transport?
(D) Waterways
Q27. The largest and the busiest inland waterways in the world is
(C) The Great Lakes and the river St. Lawrence in the USA
Q28. Which State in India has the largest forest cover?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
Q29. The White Revolution is associated with the name of
(C) Dr. Verghese Kurien
Q30. Where was the country’s first tourism mart held in September 2018?
(D) New Delhi
Q31. Which one of the following is the first film directed by Dr. Bhupen Hazarika?
(A) Era Bator Sur
Q32. The term ‘bull’ and ‘bear’ are used in the
(B) Stock Exchange
Q33. The Mahatma Gandhi Setu is on the river
(C) Ganga
Q34. The International puppet festival on October 2017 was hosted by
(A) Kolkata
Q35. Which was the first Indian city to make it to the UNESCO World Heritage List?
(D) Ahmedabad
Q36. The first Share market in India was established in the city of
(B) Mumbai
Q37. The ‘Digital India’ Programme was launched in
(B) July 2015
Q38. What is the national flower of India?
(B) Lotus
Q39. What is the national bird of India?
(C) The Indian Peacock
Q40. What is the national animal of India?
(D) Royal Bengal Tiger
Q41. A temporary tax levied to obtain revenue is called
(A) Cess
Explanation: Surcharge is an additional charge or tax levied on an existing tax. It is usually permanent in nature.
Cess is meant to raise revenue for a temporary need.
Q42. Common Salt is
(B) Sodium Chloride
Q43. The Shivalik Hills are parts of the mountain range of
(C) Himalaya
Q44. Which one of the following is a fast growing tree?
(C) Eucalyptus
Q45. India’s rank in Global Hunger Index, 2017 is
(A) 100th
Q46. ‘Smart Money’ is a term used for
(B) Credit Card
Q47. The communication satellite, which was successfully launched recently is
(A) GSAT-29
Explanation: GSAT-29 launched on 14 November 2018 and GSAT-6Awas launched on March 2018.
Q48. Gender Development Index (GDI) was introduced for the first time in Human Development Report of
(D) 2014
Q49. The Headquarters of the Asian Development Bank is in the city of
(B) Manila
Q50. What is ‘Green Banking’?
(A) Bank Financing on pro-environment projects.
Q51. The National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) was launched in
(A) 2005
Q52. Which is the first metal used by man?
(B) Copper
Q53. Which of the following planets is known as morning star?
(D) Venus
Q54. The cold and dense air blowing down the mountain slope during night is known as
(C) Katabatic wind
Q55. Which two planets of the solar system have no satellites?
(A) Mercury and Venus
Q56. Which of the following tree in not a softwood variety?
(B) Mahogany
Q57. Which state of India is the highest producer of natural rubber?
(C) Kerala
Q58. The best conductor of electricity is
(D) Saltwater
Q59. Optic fibres are mainly used for
(A) Communication
Q60. The Olympic Council of Asia has extended recognition to which Indian indigenous sport?
(B) Kho-kho
Q61. Which state Government has decided to rename its capital as ‘Atal Nagar’?
(A) Chhattisgarh
Q62. Which two nations usually conduct combat exercise called ‘Yudh Abhyas’?
(D) India and the USA
Q63. What is the greatest number that will divide 99, 123, and 183 leaving the same remainder in each case?
(A) 12
Solution: Required number=H.C.F. of (123-99), (183-123) and (183-99) = H.C.F. of 24, 60 and 84 = 12
Q64. A shop owner purchased an air conditioner for Rs. 12,000 and sold it for Rs. 15,000. What was the percentage of profit?
(B) 25
Solution: ((15000-12000)/12000)x100 = 25%
Q65. The North Eastern Council was set up in
(B) 1972
Q66. To as astronaut in a spacecraft, the colour of the sky appears
(A) Black
Q67. Lactometer is used for testing
(C) Purity of milk
Q68. Gobar gas contain mainly
(D) Methane
Q69. Solung is a folk festival of the Adi tribe of
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
Q70. Assembly language is
(C) low level programming language
Q71. Who was the author of the first report on ‘State of India’s Environment, 1982’?
(A) Anil Agarwal
Q72. Who is known as the ‘father of the Green Revolution’ in India?
(B) M S Swaminathan
Q73. Elephant Gold was authored by
(C) P D Stracey
Q74. The Fall of a sparrow is the autobiography of
(D) Salim Ali
Q75. The novel, The Glass Palace was written by
(B) Amitav Ghosh
Q76. Ecomark logo of India is a/an
(A) Earthen Pot
Q77. The American Dictionary of the English Langauge was first published in the year
(D) 1828
Q78. The Simla Agreement was signed by India and Pakistan in the year
(B) 1972
Q79. The National Waterway No. 2 connects
(C) Sadiya and Dhubri
Q80. The Tata Institute of Fundamental Research in located in
(D) Mumbai
Q81. Which two steel plans in India were set up in collaboration with Russia?
(C) Bhilai and Bokaro
Q82. The important centres of iron and steel industry in India are
(B) Bhilai, Durgapur, Burnpur, Jamshedpur and Rourkela
Q83. International Women’s Day is observed on
(B) 8th March
Q84. Asomiya Lorar Mitra was written by
(A) Anandaram Dhekial Phukan
Q85. The Run for Unity Programme was launched on 31.10.2018 as a makr of tribute to
(D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Q86. On 11.22.2018, World Leaders celebrated the first centenary of the end of which great war?
(D) World War I
Q87. What was the capital of the province called ‘Eastern Bengal and Assam’?
(A) Dhaka
Q88. The martyrdom of Kushal Konwar is related to the
(C) Quit India Movement of 1942
Q89. Who among the following was a Governor of Madras?
(A) Bishnuram Medhi
Q90. Nagaland became the 16th state of the Indian Union in the year
(C) 1963
Q91. The first ever Census of India was undertaken in the year
(C) 1872
Q92. What is the total number of States and Union Territories in India at present?
(C) 29, 7
Q93. How many hours before actual polling, the election campaign has to stop in our country?
(D) 48 hours
Q94. The Treaty of Yandaboo was signed on
(B) 24 February 1826
Q95. Find out the course of the Stilwell Road?
(D) Assam, Myanmar, China
Q96. The Capital of India was shifted from Calcutta to Delhi during the Viceroyalty of
(B) Lord Handinge
Q97. Untouchability is prohibited by the Constitution of India under the
(A) Article 17
Q98. The sixth edition of the International Buddhist Conclave, 2018 was held in the city of
(C) New Delhi
Q99. The first Indian Satellite launched in 1975 was
(D) Aryabhata
Q100. Who was the first Woman President of the Indian National Congress?
(A) Annie Besant
Disclaimer: The answer keys and solution given here are found most suitable to us. The correct answer keys will be what APSC decides and may varies from what is given here.
Many aspirants had enrolled in our APSC Mains History Test Series and were able to achieve enough marks to succeed the APSC 2016 Exam with flying colours. We are dedicated to continue the same quality and make the APSC Mains Test Series 2018 more useful for the preparation of APSC Mains History optional paper.
APSC Mains 2016 History - Paper II
PART – A
Answer any eight from the following questions (each within 250 words) : 20 x 8 = 160
Q1. Discuss the Reformation in England. How far was it different from the Reformation in Germany? 12 + 8=20
Q2. What were the relations of the first two Stuart Kings with the Parliament? What were its results? 12+ 8 = 20
Q3. Why did England enter the War of Spanish Succession? What did she gain by the Treaty of Ultrecht? 10 +10 =20
Q4. Analyse the causes responsible for the outbreak of the French Revolution in 1789. What was the contribution of the French philosophers in the revolution? 12 + 8 = 20
Q6. Discuss the causes for the rise and growth of the Fascism in Italy. What was the contribution under Benito Mussolini? 12 + 8 = 20
Q7. Who was Lenin? What role did he play in the rise of USSR? 80+12=20
Q8. Critically analyse the causes of the Revolution of 1848. What were its consequences? 14+6=20
Q9. What were the causes of the Second World War (1939-1945)? What were it’s effects on world politics? 12+8 = 20 Question from our APSC Mains History Test SeriesTest 8: Q9. (20 Marks)
Q10. Trace the growth of the Nationalist Movement in China. How far did it influence the Japanese Policy towards China? 8+12=20
Q11. Assess the role of the UNO as an instrument for the establishment of world peace. 20
Q12. How did the growth of Japanese Militarism rupture international peace and stability? 20
PART – B
Answer any five from the following questions (each within 150 words): 8 x 5=40
Q13. How did the Industrial Revolution affect the socio-economic fabric of the people of England? 8
Q20. Critically assess the causes of the failure of Disbarment between 1920 and 1939. 8
A total questions worth 106 Marks in APSC CC(Mains) Exam 2016 – History Paper 2, were matched with the questions of our APSC Mains History Test Series.
Many aspirants had enrolled in our APSC Mains History Test Series and were able to achieve enough marks to succeed the APSC 2016 Exam with flying colours. We are dedicated to continue the same quality and make the APSC Mains Test Series 2018 more useful for the preparation of APSC Mains History optional paper.
APSC Mains 2016 History - Paper I
PART – A
Answer any eight questions from the following within 250 words each: 20 x 8 = 160
Q1. Discuss the important features of the Indus Valley Civilization. Explain the economic and religious life of the Indus people. 10 + 5 +5=20
Q2. Trace the emergence and growth of the Caste system in the Rigvedic Period. Account for the expansion of this system in the Later Vedic Period. 12+ 8 = 20
Q3. Estimate the place of Asoka in history. What changed did he bring about in the administrative system of the Mauryas? 10 +10 =20
Q4. Discuss the emergence of Magadha as a powerful State and contribution of Chandragupta Maurua in this regard. Throw some light on his military administration. 5+ 10 + 5 = 20
Q5. Make an assessment of Samudragupta’s military expeditions which established him as a great conqueror. Do you find any difference between his Northern and Southern Policy in exerting his dominance over the States he conquered? 10 + 10 = 20
Q6. Who were the Pallavas? Analyze their contributions towards the art and cultural history of Southern India. 5 + 15 = 20
Q7. What were the causes for the decline of the Mughal Empire? To what extent was Aurangazeb responsible for the downfall of the Mughal Empire? 15 + 5 = 20
Q8. Discuss the causes and results of the Fourth Anglo-Mysore War. 12 + 8 = 20
Q9. Explain on what ground Warren Hastings may be regarded as the real founder of British Empire in India. What were the factors leading to his impeachment? 15 + 5 = 20
Q10. Discuss the role of Maharaja Ranjit Singha in uniting the Sikhs as a Nation and in establishment of Sikh State. What were the factors leading to the downfall of the Sikhs? 10+10 =20
Q11. What is ‘Doctrine of Lapse’? How it worked as a main tool in curbing the independence of the Indian native States? How far this policy may be held responsible for the outbreak of Sepoy Mutiny in 1857? 5 + 10 + 5 =20
Q12. Explain the causes for starting the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1921. How were the people of India involved in this movement as a whole? Under what circumstances this movement has to be withdrawn? 10+5+5 =20
