1. Name of Post : UPSC IES/ ISS Exam 2019 Online Form
Number of Post : 65 posts
The Services to which recruitment is to be made on the results of this examination and the
approximate number of vacancies in Junior Time Scale of the Services are given below :-
(i) Indian Economic Service – 32 posts
(ii) Indian Statistical Service – 33 posts
Qualification:
For IES: PG Degree (Economics/Applied Economics/Business Economics/Econometrics)
(I) The Online Applications can be filled up to 16th April, 2019 till 18.00 Hours.
(II) The online Applications can be withdrawn from 23.04.2019 to 30.04.2019 till 6.00 PM.
HOW TO APPLY : Candidates are required to apply online only by using the website https//www.upsconline.nic.in . Detailed instructions are available on the above mentioned website.
SCHEME OF EXAMINATION:
The examination shall be conducted according to the following plan—
Part I-Written examination carrying a maximum of 1000 marks in the subjects as shown below.
Part II-Viva voce of such candidates as may be called by the Commission carrying a maximum of 200 marks.
PART-I
The subjects of the written examination under Part-I, the maximum marks allotted to each subject/paper and the time allowed shall be as follows : A. Indian Economic Service
Sl. No. Subject Maximum Marks Time Allowed
1. General English 100 3 hrs.
2. General Studies 100 3 hrs.
3. General Economics-I 200 3 hrs.
4. General Economics-II 200 3 hrs.
5. General Economics-III 200 3 hrs.
6. Indian Economics 200 3 hrs.
B. Indian Statistical Service
Sl. No. Subject Maximum Marks Time Allowed
1. General English 100 3 hrs.
2. General Studies 100 3 hrs.
3. Statistics-I (Objective) 200 3 hrs.
4. Statistics-II (Objective) 200 3 hrs.
5. Statistics-III (Descriptive)200 3 hrs.
6. Statistics-IV (Descriptive)200 3 hrs.
Note-1 : Statistics I & II will be of Objective Type Questions (80 questions with maximum marks of 200 in each paper) to be attempted in 120 minutes.
Note-2 : Statistics III & IV will be of Descriptive Type having Short Answer/ Small Problems Questions (50%) and Long Answer and Comprehension problem questions (50%). At least one Short Answer and One Long Answer Question from each section is compulsory. In Statistics-IV, equal number of questions i.e. 50% weightage from all the sub-sections below and candidates have to choose any two sub-sections and answer.
Note 3 : The papers on General English and General Studies, common to both Indian Economic Service and Indian Statistical Service will be of subjective type.
Note 4 : All other papers of Indian Economic Service will be of subjective type.
Note-5 : The details of standard and syllabi for the examination are given in Section-II below.
2. The question papers in all subjects in Indian Economic Service Examination and in Indian Statistical Service Examination will be of Conventional (essay) type except in Statistics Paper I and Statistics Paper II which are Objective Type Papers.
3. ALL QUESTION PAPERS MUST BE ANSWERED IN ENGLISH; QUESTION PAPERS WILL BE SET IN ENGLISH ONLY.
Assam Tea Employees Provident Fund Organization Recruitment 2019
Assistant Fund Control Officer/ Junior Assistant (33 Posts)
1. Assistant Fund Control Officer
No of posts: 13
Educational Qualification: Graduate in any discipline in any stream with 50% marks in aggregate.
Pay: Rs. Pay band =PB 3, Rs.22,000/- to 87,000/- plus Grade pay of Rs.9,700/- and other allowances.
2. Junior Assistant
No of posts: 20
Educational Qualification: Graduate in any stream with Diploma/Certificate in Computer skills with MS Office, MS Excel, MS PowerPoint and knowledge of computer typing in the Assamese language. Pay: Rs. Pay band =PB 2, Rs.14,000/- to 49,000/- plus Grade pay of Rs.6,200/- and other allowances
Age: The candidates should not be less than 21 years Of age and not more than 38 years Of age as on 01.01.2019. The upper age limit is relaxable by- (i) 5 years for SC/ST candidates i.e. up to 43 years. (ii) 3 years for OBC/MOBC candidates i.e. up to 41 years. (iii) For the person with Disabilities (PWD) by 10 years irrespective of SC/ST/OBC and General Category Of candidates.
The age limit Of the candidates Will be calculated on the basis Of Matriculation/HSLC Admit Card/ Certificate issued by a recognized Board/ Council and no Other document shall be accepted in lieu Of the mentioned documents.
Essential Criteria: Candidates must have registration in Employment Exchange in the State Of Assam. (Attach self-attested valid supporting documents)
How to apply: Candidates shall have to apply separately for each post. The candidates should enclose the following along with the filled in Standard Form (attach self-attested Copies Of Certificates):
Duly signed 3 (three) copies Of recent passport size photograph (one pasted & stapled).
Certificate in support Of age.
Degree passed mark sheet and certificate.
Certificate in support Of knowledge Of Computer typing for the post Of Junior Assistant.
Caste certificate if any.
A bank draft is drawn on SBI and payable at Dispur favoring Secretary-Cum-P.F. Commissioner, Board of Trustees. for Rs.300/-(Rs.200/- for ST/SC) for the post of AFCO and Rs.200/-(Rs.100/- for ST/SC) for the post Of Junior Assistant. For the person with disabilities; the application fee is nil.
One self-addressed envelope (size 10″ X4″ ) pasted with RS. 5/-postal stamp.
Employment Exchange Registration Number.
The Name Of the post applied for should be clearly written in “bold letters” in the Envelope containing the application form and it should be addressed to the Secretary-Cum-P.F. Commissioner, A.T.E.P.F. Organization, Basistha, Lalmati, Guwahati-781029. Applicants who are already employed should submit their application through proper.
Last Date of Application: 30.04.2019.
Selection Procedure:
(a) ASSIATANT FUND CONTROL OFFICER:
Screening test: 150 Marks
Written test (200 marks) + Viva voce (50 Marks)
Stage 2: written test: Descriptive Type (200 marks)
Subject to be included in tests:
(a) General studies including current affairs, national and international
(b) General English
(c) Arithmetic
Stage 3: Viva voce (50 marks)
Combined marks of written and test and viva voce secured by a candidate will be determining factor for his selection to the post of Assistant Fund control officer.
(b) JUNIOR ASSTSTANT:
Stage 1: Written test _ 150 marks
Multiple choice question (100 marks) + Descriptive type (50 MarksJ = 150 marks
Subject to be included in test:
(a) General studies including current affairs, national and international
(b) General English
(c) Arithmetic
Stage 2: Computer test (20 Marks) + Viva voce (40 marks) = 60 marks
Combined marks of written test, Computer test and viva voce secured by a candidate will be determining factor for his selection to the post of Junior Assistant.
Q1. Down to Earth, a science and environment fortnightly is published by the
(C) Centre for Science and Environment
Q2. Ozone layer is found in atmosphere approximately in between
(A) 10km-17km
Explanation: Most ozone (about 90%) resides in a layer that begins between 6 and 10 miles (10 and 17 kilometers) above the Earth’s surface and extends up to about 30 miles (50 kilometers).
Q3. Which of the following is not a characteristic of green product?
(D) Factory products with green colour
Q4. Which one of the following is not a method of in situ conservation of biodiversity?
(D) Botanical Garden
Q5. Find out the largest fraction.
(B) 4/5
Q6. The pattern of drainage of the river Brahmaputra is known as
(A) Braided
Q7. Natural vegetation of Assam is basically
(A) tropical moist deciduous
Q8. The largest area of the Brahmaputra basin falls in the territory of
(C) China
Q9. The average rainfall of Assam is all about
(C) 212cm
Q10. How many bamboo species are available in Assam?
(C) 42
Q11. Which one of the following is not a Tiger Reserve in Assam?
(D) Dibru-Saikhowa
Q12. Which of the following is not an Elephant reserve in Assam?
(B) Pabitara
Q13. The Bhakra Hydroelectric Power Project uses the water of
(B) Sutlej River
Q14. Which of the following countries has the largest reserve of coal?
(A) USA
Q15. Which of the following elements is found in highest quantity in the crust of the earth?
(A) Oxygen
Q16. Name the state that does not have any wind power prospective sites.
(C) Uttar Pradesh
Q17. Which of the following States of India shares boundaries with six other States?
(D) Chhattisgarh
Explanation: The answer is correct considering Telangana and Andhra Pradesh as one. The Question may be old.
Q18. Which one of the following is the smallest State of India in terms of population?
(B) Sikkim
Q19. The fuel having high ignition temperature is
(D) Wood
Q20. Bhopal gas tragedy in 1984 was caused by
(C) Methyl isocyanate
Q21. Which of the following is a cold desert?
(D) Gobi
Q22. The Lake Superior, the largest fresh water lake, is located in
(B) The USA
Explanation: Lake Superior is cshared by both Canada and the US. It’s total surface area in 82,000 sq, km (of which 29,000 sq.km in Canada). So, more area in the US.
Q23. The headquarters of the UNESCO is located in
(D) Paris
Q24. The modern Olympic Games were started in Athens in the year
(B) 1896
Q25. Indian sprinter Hima Das won gold medal in 4x400m relay in the Asian Games held in
(C) Indonesia
Q26. Which one of the following is the cheapest means transport?
(D) Waterways
Q27. The largest and the busiest inland waterways in the world is
(C) The Great Lakes and the river St. Lawrence in the USA
Q28. Which State in India has the largest forest cover?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
Q29. The White Revolution is associated with the name of
(C) Dr. Verghese Kurien
Q30. Where was the country’s first tourism mart held in September 2018?
(D) New Delhi
Q31. Which one of the following is the first film directed by Dr. Bhupen Hazarika?
(A) Era Bator Sur
Q32. The term ‘bull’ and ‘bear’ are used in the
(B) Stock Exchange
Q33. The Mahatma Gandhi Setu is on the river
(C) Ganga
Q34. The International puppet festival on October 2017 was hosted by
(A) Kolkata
Q35. Which was the first Indian city to make it to the UNESCO World Heritage List?
(D) Ahmedabad
Q36. The first Share market in India was established in the city of
(B) Mumbai
Q37. The ‘Digital India’ Programme was launched in
(B) July 2015
Q38. What is the national flower of India?
(B) Lotus
Q39. What is the national bird of India?
(C) The Indian Peacock
Q40. What is the national animal of India?
(D) Royal Bengal Tiger
Q41. A temporary tax levied to obtain revenue is called
(A) Cess
Explanation: Surcharge is an additional charge or tax levied on an existing tax. It is usually permanent in nature.
Cess is meant to raise revenue for a temporary need.
Q42. Common Salt is
(B) Sodium Chloride
Q43. The Shivalik Hills are parts of the mountain range of
(C) Himalaya
Q44. Which one of the following is a fast growing tree?
(C) Eucalyptus
Q45. India’s rank in Global Hunger Index, 2017 is
(A) 100th
Q46. ‘Smart Money’ is a term used for
(B) Credit Card
Q47. The communication satellite, which was successfully launched recently is
(A) GSAT-29
Explanation: GSAT-29 launched on 14 November 2018 and GSAT-6Awas launched on March 2018.
Q48. Gender Development Index (GDI) was introduced for the first time in Human Development Report of
(D) 2014
Q49. The Headquarters of the Asian Development Bank is in the city of
(B) Manila
Q50. What is ‘Green Banking’?
(A) Bank Financing on pro-environment projects.
Q51. The National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) was launched in
(A) 2005
Q52. Which is the first metal used by man?
(B) Copper
Q53. Which of the following planets is known as morning star?
(D) Venus
Q54. The cold and dense air blowing down the mountain slope during night is known as
(C) Katabatic wind
Q55. Which two planets of the solar system have no satellites?
(A) Mercury and Venus
Q56. Which of the following tree in not a softwood variety?
(B) Mahogany
Q57. Which state of India is the highest producer of natural rubber?
(C) Kerala
Q58. The best conductor of electricity is
(D) Saltwater
Q59. Optic fibres are mainly used for
(A) Communication
Q60. The Olympic Council of Asia has extended recognition to which Indian indigenous sport?
(B) Kho-kho
Q61. Which state Government has decided to rename its capital as ‘Atal Nagar’?
(A) Chhattisgarh
Q62. Which two nations usually conduct combat exercise called ‘Yudh Abhyas’?
(D) India and the USA
Q63. What is the greatest number that will divide 99, 123, and 183 leaving the same remainder in each case?
(A) 12
Solution: Required number=H.C.F. of (123-99), (183-123) and (183-99) = H.C.F. of 24, 60 and 84 = 12
Q64. A shop owner purchased an air conditioner for Rs. 12,000 and sold it for Rs. 15,000. What was the percentage of profit?
(B) 25
Solution: ((15000-12000)/12000)x100 = 25%
Q65. The North Eastern Council was set up in
(B) 1972
Q66. To as astronaut in a spacecraft, the colour of the sky appears
(A) Black
Q67. Lactometer is used for testing
(C) Purity of milk
Q68. Gobar gas contain mainly
(D) Methane
Q69. Solung is a folk festival of the Adi tribe of
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
Q70. Assembly language is
(C) low level programming language
Q71. Who was the author of the first report on ‘State of India’s Environment, 1982’?
(A) Anil Agarwal
Q72. Who is known as the ‘father of the Green Revolution’ in India?
(B) M S Swaminathan
Q73. Elephant Gold was authored by
(C) P D Stracey
Q74. The Fall of a sparrow is the autobiography of
(D) Salim Ali
Q75. The novel, The Glass Palace was written by
(B) Amitav Ghosh
Q76. Ecomark logo of India is a/an
(A) Earthen Pot
Q77. The American Dictionary of the English Langauge was first published in the year
(D) 1828
Q78. The Simla Agreement was signed by India and Pakistan in the year
(B) 1972
Q79. The National Waterway No. 2 connects
(C) Sadiya and Dhubri
Q80. The Tata Institute of Fundamental Research in located in
(D) Mumbai
Q81. Which two steel plans in India were set up in collaboration with Russia?
(C) Bhilai and Bokaro
Q82. The important centres of iron and steel industry in India are
(B) Bhilai, Durgapur, Burnpur, Jamshedpur and Rourkela
Q83. International Women’s Day is observed on
(B) 8th March
Q84. Asomiya Lorar Mitra was written by
(A) Anandaram Dhekial Phukan
Q85. The Run for Unity Programme was launched on 31.10.2018 as a makr of tribute to
(D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Q86. On 11.22.2018, World Leaders celebrated the first centenary of the end of which great war?
(D) World War I
Q87. What was the capital of the province called ‘Eastern Bengal and Assam’?
(A) Dhaka
Q88. The martyrdom of Kushal Konwar is related to the
(C) Quit India Movement of 1942
Q89. Who among the following was a Governor of Madras?
(A) Bishnuram Medhi
Q90. Nagaland became the 16th state of the Indian Union in the year
(C) 1963
Q91. The first ever Census of India was undertaken in the year
(C) 1872
Q92. What is the total number of States and Union Territories in India at present?
(C) 29, 7
Q93. How many hours before actual polling, the election campaign has to stop in our country?
(D) 48 hours
Q94. The Treaty of Yandaboo was signed on
(B) 24 February 1826
Q95. Find out the course of the Stilwell Road?
(D) Assam, Myanmar, China
Q96. The Capital of India was shifted from Calcutta to Delhi during the Viceroyalty of
(B) Lord Handinge
Q97. Untouchability is prohibited by the Constitution of India under the
(A) Article 17
Q98. The sixth edition of the International Buddhist Conclave, 2018 was held in the city of
(C) New Delhi
Q99. The first Indian Satellite launched in 1975 was
(D) Aryabhata
Q100. Who was the first Woman President of the Indian National Congress?
(A) Annie Besant
Disclaimer: The answer keys and solution given here are found most suitable to us. The correct answer keys will be what APSC decides and may varies from what is given here.
1. Name of Post : Civil Services (Prelims) Exam 2019
Number of Post : 896 posts
AGE : A candidate must have attained the age of 21 years and must not have attained the age of 32 years on the 1st of August, 2019 i.e., he must have been born not earlier than 2nd August, 1987 and not later than 1st August, 1998. Necessary action to make corresponding changes in respective Rules/Regulations pertaining to various services is being taken separately.
Relaxation details given in the advertisement.
EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATION : Candidates should posses Degree from a recognised University.
LAST DATE FOR ONLINE SUBMISSION OF APPLICATIONS: The Online Applications can be filled up to 18th March, 2019 till 6:00 P.M. after which the link will
be disabled. Detailed instructions regarding filling of online application is available at Appendix-II.
How to Apply: Candidates are required to apply online using the website http://www.upsconline.nic.in
Detailed instructions for filling up online applications are available on the above mentioned website.
FEE:
Candidates (excepting Female/SC/ST/Persons with Benchmark Disability Candidates who are exempted from payment of fee) are required to pay fee of Rs. 100/- (Rupees One Hundred only) either by remitting the money in any Branch of State Bank of India or by using Visa/Master/RuPay Credit/Debit Card or by using Internet Banking of SBI.
Scheme and subjects for the Preliminary Examination.
A. PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION:
The Examination shall comprise of two compulsory Papers of 200 marks each.
Note :
(i) Both the question papers will be of the objective type (multiple choice questions) and each will be of two hours duration.
(ii) The General Studies Paper-II of the Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination will be aqualifying paper with minimum qualifying marks fixed at 33%.
(iii) The question papers will be set both in Hindi and English.
(iv) Details of the syllabi are indicated in Part A of Section III.
SYLLABI FOR THE PRELIM EXAMINATION
NOTE : Candidates are advised to go through the Syllabus published in this Section for the Preliminary Examination and the Main Examination, as periodic revision of syllabus has been done in several subjects.
Paper I – (200 marks) Duration: Two hours
Current events of national and international importance.
History of India and Indian National Movement.
Indian and World Geography-Physical, Social, Economic Geography of India and the World.
Indian Polity and Governance-Constitution, Political System, Panchayati Raj, Public Policy, Rights Issues, etc.
Economic and Social Development-Sustainable Development, Poverty, Inclusion, Demographics, Social Sector Initiatives, etc.
General issues on Environmental ecology, Bio-diversity and Climate Change – that do not require subject specialization.
General Science.
Paper II-(200 marks) Duration : Two hours
Comprehension;
Interpersonal skills including communication skills;
Logical reasoning and analytical ability;
Decision making and problem solving;
General mental ability;
Basic numeracy (numbers and their relations, orders of magnitude, etc.) (Class X level), Data interpretation (charts, graphs, tables, data sufficiency etc. — Class X level);
Note 1 :Paper-II of the Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination will be a qualifying paper with minimum qualifying marks fixed at 33%.
Note 2 :The questions will be of multiple choice, objective type.
Note 3 :It is mandatory for the candidate to appear in both the Papers of Civil Services (Prelim) Examination for the purpose of evaluation. Therefore a candidate will be disqualified in case he/she does not appear in both the papers of Civil Services (Prelim)
1. Name of Post : Child Development Project Officer & allied cadres under Social Welfare Department.
NOTE: The candidates should opt for anyone of the optional subjects from the List of optional subjects: Social Works/ Labour & Social Welfare/ Sociology/Anthropology/ Criminology/ Child Development/ Home Science/ Nutrition/ Philosophy/Education with Psychology, Economics.
#Those who have applied without selected Optional Subject, can selected subject and send the Form to APSC (Without sending the original application) – Download Optional subject Selection Form
Number of Post : 73
SCALE OF PAY : Rs. 22,000/- to 87,000/- and Grade Pay Rs. 9,700/- of PB-3 plus other allowances
AGE : The candidates should not be less than 21 years of age and not more than 38 years of age as on 01-01-2019. The upper age limit is relaxable by-
(i) 5 years for SC/ST candidates i.e upto 43 years.
(ii) 3 years for OBC/MOBC candidates i.e upto 41 years as per Govt. Notification No. ABP. 6/2016/9 dated Dispur the 25th April 2018.
(iii) For Persons with Disabilities (PWD) by 10 years irrespective of SC/ST/OBC and General Category of candidates as per Govt. Notification No. ABP 144/95/121 dated Dispur the 28th October, 2015.
EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATION:
Graduate in Arts, Science, Commerce from a recognized University and in addition any one of the following qualification:
a. Post Graduate Degree or Diploma in Social Works/ Labour & Social Welfare/Sociology/ Anthropology/ Criminology.
b. Graduate in Child Development/ Home Science/ Nutrition or
c. Graduate having Philosophy/ Education with Psychology, Economics.
(Attach self attested valid supporting documents)
How to Apply:
The name of the post applied for should be clearly written in “bold letters” in the Envelope containing the application form and it should be addressed to the Deputy Secretary, APSC, Jawaharnagar, Khanapara, Guwahati-781022.
Application form may be obtained by downloading the same from the APSC’s website www.apsc.nic.in ( Application form DR)
LAST DATE: 31st March, 2019
Application Fee:
For General candidate: Rs.250/-
For SC/ST/OBC/MOBC candidates: Rs. 150/-
For BPL/PWD candidates: Nil
Important Dates:
Last Date of receiving duly filled up application form in the Commission’s office is fixed on 31/03/2019 during office hours.
WRITTEN TEST / INTERVIEW:
If the number of applications received is large, the
i. Commission may short-list the number of candidates either on the basis of their marks obtained in the qualifying academic examination required for the post in terms of advertisement.
-OR
ii. By holding multiple choice OMR based Screening test or written examination which will be notified in due course.
Written Test/ Interview Schedule
Type of Examination
Subject
Marks
Duration
Conventional Essay Type
English (Essay & Precis
writing etc.)
100
3 Hours
OMR (Multiple Choice
Objective Type)
General Knowledge
100
2 Hours
Optional Subject (any one of
the following optional
subjects)
Optional Subjects:
Social Works/ Labour &
Social Welfare/ Sociology/
Anthropology/ Criminology/
Child Development/ Home
Science/ Nutrition/
Philosophy/ Education with
Psychology, Economics.
100
2 Hours
Interview
37
2. Name of Post : Computer Operator (Typist) in Assam Public Service Commission
Number of Post : 17 (Seventeen) nos.
ESSENTIAL CRITERIA : Candidate must having registration in Employment Exchanges in the State of Assam. (Attach self attested valid supporting documents)
SCALE OF PAY : 14000-49000/- with Grade Pay of Rs.6,200/- plus other allowances as admissible under the Rules.
AGE : Must not be less than 18 years and more than 44 years as on 01.01.2019(as per O.M vide No.ABP.6/2016/8 dated 18th April, 2018). The upper age limit is relaxable by –
(i) 3 years for OBC candidates and 5 years for SC/ST candidates.
(ii) For Persons with Disabilities (PWD) by 10 years irrespective of SC/ST/OBC/MOBC and General Category of candidates as per Govt. Notification No. ABP 144/95/121 dated Dispur the 28th October,2015.
EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATION : a) Higher Secondary/Class-XII passed from the Govt. recognized Board/Council.
(b) Candidates must have good working knowledge of office productivity software tools (independent of any operating system i.e. MS Windows, Linux, Mac etc.) such as – i) Word Processor, ii) Spreadsheet, iii) Presentation Graphics, iv) Content of Database, v) Internet and vi) E-Mail.
(c) Candidates must possess a minimum 6 (six) months completed diploma/certificate in computer proficiency,from a Govt. Of Assam recognized institution (no breaks in qualification admissible) and must have computing knowledge in Assamese and English Language.
(Attach self attested valid supporting documents)
SELECTION PROCESS: (i) The selection process will consist of two phases. Written Exam of 100 (Phase-I) marks and Computer Practical Test of 100 marks (Phase-II).
Phase-I.
Name of the Sl. No. Post
SubjectPay Band (Rs.)
Total Marks Grade Pay (Rs.)
1
General English
40
2
Computer Theory
40
3
General Awareness
20
Total
100
Phase-II:Computer Proficiency Practical Test.
Against each vacancy four candidates will be short listed on the basis of the marks obtained in the written test. The short listed candidates shall have to appear in the Computer Proficiency Practical Test to be held centrally in Guwahati alongwith original testimonials including duplicate copy of Treasury Challan. The total marks for the Computer Proficiency Practical Test will be 100 marks.
APDCL Previous Years Question Paper for Asst Accounts Officer AAO
Previous year exam for APDCL AAO had two papers, viz. Paper 1 contains General English and General Knowledge and Paper 2 had General Mathematics and one of optional subjects of Accountancy/Statistics/Mathematics.
Here Paper 2 is discussed.
PART A: GENERAL MATHEMATICS
1. General solution of the equation 1 + Cos x = 0 is
a) {π/2 + 2nπ} b) {- π/2 + 2nπ} c) {π+ 2nπ} d) None of these
2. If a+ib= c+id, then it must be tru that
a) a=c, & b=d b) a= -c & b=d c) a=d & b=c d) ad=bc
3. Harmonic mean between two numbers ‘a’ and ‘b’ is
a) (a+b) /2 b) 2ab/(a+b) c) ab d) (a+b)/ab
4. If nC6 = nC12, then n equals
a) 18 b) 12 c) 6 d) 20
5. The numbers of terms in the expansion of (a+b) n is
a) n b) n+1 c) 2 n d) 2 n – 1
6. Any point on the line y = x is of the form :
a) (a, a) b) (0, a) c) (a, 0) d) (a, – a)
7. The equation of the line whose graph passes through the origin, is :
a) 2x + 3y = 1 b) 2x + 3y = 0 c) 2x + 3y = 6 d) none of these
8. The equation of y-axis is :
a) y = 0 b) x = a c) y = a d) x = 0
9. Real part of (2+i)/i is equal to
a) 1 b) 2 c) -1 d) ½
10. If roots of the equation ax2 + bx + 1 = 0 are equal, the value of k will be…
a) ab2- 4=0 b) b2- 4a=0 c) a2- 4b=0 d) b2- 4ab=0
11. If A =[5,6,7] and B=[7,8,9]then A U B is equal to: (a) [5,6,7,8,9] b) [5,6,7] c) [7,8,9] d) [7]
12. In 2nd quadrant? (a) x>0, y<0 b) x<0, y<0 c) x>0, y>0 d) x<0, y>0
13. The intersection of sets A and B is expressed as: (a) AUB b) A/B c) AՈB d)AXB
14. Empty set is a : a) Invalid set b) Finite set c)Infinite set d) None of above
15. If x/y=3/2 then (2x+3y)/(6x+5y) =?
(a)4/9 b)3/7 c)9/7 d)7/17
16. If salary of Ram is 25% more than the salary of Shyam, then the salary of Shyam is less than the salary of Ram in percentage is
(a) 10% b) 15% c) 20% d) 25%
17. Four angles of a quadrilateral are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 : 4. Find them.
(a) 36°, 72°, 108°, 144° b) 350, 700, 1050, 1400
c) 400, 800,1200,1600 d) 250, 500, 750, 1000
18. Find the false statement
a) Line segment joining the centre to any point on the circle is a radius of the circle.
b) If a circle is divided into three equal arcs, each is a major arc.
c) A chord of a circle, which is twice as long as its radius, is a diameter of the circle. .
d) A circle is a plane figure.
19. A bag contains 4 red and 6 black balls. A ball is taken out of the bag at random. Find the probability of getting of black ball.
(a) 3/5 b) 5/3 c) 3/7 d) 2/5
20. The condition that the equation ax + by + c = 0 represent a linear equation in two variables is
(a) a ≠ 0, b = 0 b) b ≠ 0, a = 0 c) a = 0, b = 0 d) a ≠ 0, b ≠ 0
21. The graph of the linear equation 2x + 3y = 9 cuts y-axis at the point:
(a) 9/2 , 0 b) (0, 9) c) (0, 3) d) (3,1)
22. Find the value of x from = – 4
(a) 3 b) – 3 c) 1/3 d) 4
23. Zero s of the quadratic polynomial are
(a) 0, -2 b) 2, -2 c) 0, 2 d) 1, 0
24. The product of two consecutive positive integers is 306. What are the integers?
a) 16, 17 b) 17, 18 c) 18, 19 d) 19, 20
25. Write first four terms of the A.P. when the first term a and the common difference d are given as follows a = − 1 d = ½
(a) 1, ½. 0 and -1/2 b) -1, ½. -1/2 and 1 c) -1, -1/2, 0 and 1/2 d) 1, -1/2, 1 and 0
26. All circles are :
a) Congruent b) Both Congruent and similar
c) neither congruent nor similar d) similar
27. In ΔABC right angled at B, AB = 24 cm, BC = 7 m. Determine sin A, cos A
a) 24/25, 7/25 b) 8/25, 24/25 c) 8/25, 7/ 25 d) 7/25, 24/25
28. If an AP has a=1, tn =20 and Sn=399 then value of n is:
a) 20 b) 32 c) 38 d) 40
29. In terms of powers of prime numbers, 1260 can be written as :
a) 22 × 3 × 52 b) 22 × 32 × 5 × 7 c) 2 × 32 × 52 × 7 d) 22 × 3 × 5 × 72
30. 0.35% expressed as a decimal, is equal to :
a) 0.35 b) 0.035 c) 0.0035 d) 3.5
31. The product of (2 x – 3 )and (2 x + 3) is :
a) 2×2 – 3 b) 4×2 – 3 c) 4×2 – 9 d) 4×2 + 9
32. In a frequency distribution, the class mark of a class is 10 and its width is 5. The lower limit of class is:
a) 5 b) 7.5 c) 10 d) 12.5
33. —- is a collection of well defined and distant objects
a) Set b) Conjugate c) Power d) Relation
34. Additive inverse of “0” is
a) 1 b) -1 c) 0 d) 2
35. Find the distance between the points (2, 3), and (4, 1):
a) 33 b) 22 c) 23 d) 32
36. 3x2y+5 is a polynomial of degree
a) one b) two c) three d) zero
37. Factors of x2 – 5x + 6 are
a) (x+6)(x+1) b) (x-2)(x+3) c) (x+2)(x+3) d) (x+1)(x-6)
38. HFC of a3+b3 and a2- ab+ b2 is
a) a2- ab+ b2 b) (a+b)3 c) (a2+b2) d) (a+b)
39. Two equations in two variable which are true for the same ordered pair are called —– equations
a) Cubical b) Quadratic c) Simultaneous d) Radical
40. The Cartesian coordinate system is also called
a) Binary b) Functional c) Denary d) Rectangular
41. √ 2 is a __________ number.
a) Rational b) irrational c) Prime d) None
42. Trivial solution of homogeneous linear equation is
a) (1, 0, 0) b) (0, 1, 0) c) (0, 0, 1) d) (0,0,0)
43. The general term of the sequenced 2, 4, 6, 8, ….. is
a) N b) 2n c) 2n – 1 d) n2
44. 0! = ?
a) 1 b) 0 c) undefined d) None
45. nCr in factorial form is :
a) n!r / (n-n)! b) n! / r! (n-r)! c) n! d) n! –r / n!
46. 1 + 2 + 3 + ………..+ (n -1)= ?
a) n (n-1) /2 b) n (n+1)/2 c) (n-1)(n+1)/2 d) [ n(n+1)]2/2
47. (1-Cos2 θ) (1+Cot2 θ) = ?
a) Sin2 θ b) Cos2 θ c) Cosec2 θ d) 1
48. Cos (α + β) = ?
a) Sin α cos β + cos α sin β b) Sin α cos β – cos α sin β
c) cos α cos β – sin α sin β d) cos α cos β + sin α sin β
49. ‘Sine’ and ‘cosine’ are periodic function whose period is :
a) л / 2 b) л c) 2 л d) 4 л
50. The inverse exists only for the function which is:
a) One to one b) onto c) into d) All of these
PART B: ACCOUNTANCY/STATISTICS/MATHEMATICS (ANSWER ANY ONE SUBJECT) ACCOUNTANCY
51. Central Excise duty is an indirect tax levied by:
a) Union Government
b) State Governments
c) Both Union and State Governments
d) None of the above.
52. The Customs Act, 1962 covers :
a) Import duties only
b) Export duties only
c) Both Import and Export duties
d) None of the above
53. A debenture holder is a:
a) Creditor of the Company
b) Debtor of the Company
c) Employee of the Company
d) None of the above
54. A Debenture holder gets:
a) Dividend from the Company
b) Interest from the Company
c) Both Dividend and Interest from the Company
d) None of the Above
55. A Company limited by shares if permitted by Articles and passed a resolution in the general meeting to this effect, can do:
a) Increase capital only
b) consolidate capital only.
c) convert capital into stock only
d) All of the above
56. A Company can reduce capital if:
a) only Articles of Association permits
b) only a special resolution has been passed to this effect
c) only the national company law tribunal approves it
d) all of the above three jointly
57. Reduction of capital under section 100 involves:
a) only reduction of unpaid call on shares
b) only cancellation of paid up capital of shares
c) only return of a part of paid up capital to its shareholders
d) all of them.
58. A company can be voluntarily wound up by members if:
a) the directors give a declaration of solvency
b) the auditors give a declaration of solvency
c) the creditors give consent
d) None of the above.
7
59. In order to be a holding company, a company must acquire:
a) All the equity shares
b) Majority of equity shares with voting rights
c) Power to compose the board of Directors
d) Any one of the above.
60. A consolidated Balance Sheet of a holding company must contain:
a) all the assets and liabilities of the subsidiary companies
b) proportionate assets and liabilities of the subsidiary companies
c) all the shares of the subsidiary companies
d) None of the above.
61. The cost of control for acquiring of the shares of the subsidiary companies may show :
a) Goodwill
b) Capital Reserve
c) Nil
d) Any of the above
62. A consolidated Balance Sheet is:
a) Principal Balance Sheet of the holding company
b) A Substitute Group Balance Sheet
c) A statutory Balance Sheet
d) None of the above
63. The transfer of an entry from journal to ledger is known as:
a) Vouching
b) Transaction
c) Posting
d) Auditing
64. A Trial Balance is prepared to ascertain the:
a) Arithmetical accuracy of the books of accounts
b) Profit or loss of the business
c) Assets and liabilities of the business
d) None of the above.
65. Transactions are:
a) Any events
b) Only Monetary Events
c) Both Monetary and non-monetary events
d) Only non-monetary events
66. In case of a Paper Transaction:
a) Money is to be paid later on
b) Money is to be paid immediately
c) Money is not to be paid at all
d) None of the above
67. Which of the following events is not a transaction?
a) Payment of children’s school fees
b) Receipt of income-tax refund
c) Withdrawing of money from bank for personal use
d) None of the above.
68. Net working capital is the:
a) Excess of current liabilities over current assets
b) Excess of current assets over current liabilities
c) Excess of fixed assets over long term liabilities
d) Excess of total profits over expected profits.
8
69. Margin of Safety is:
a) Excess of Break-even Sales over total sales
b) Excess of total sales over Break-even Sales
c) Excess of maximum stock level over minimum stock level
d) None of the above.
70. At Economic Order Quantity:
a) Carrying Cost and Buying Cost are equal
b) Carrying Cost is more than Buying Cost
c) Buying Cost is more than Carrying Cost
d) Sum of Carrying Cost and Buying Cost is equal to Total Cost.
71. In case of Dissolution of a Partnership Firm, the following Account is prepared:
a) Revaluation Account
b) Realisation Account
c) Profit & Loss Account
d) Income & Expenditure Account
72. A & B are partners sharing profits as 2:1. C is admitted for 1/4ths share. The sacrificing ratio is:
a) 4:1
b) 8:1
c) 2:1
d) None of the above
73. A & B are partners sharing profits as 3:2. C has been admitted in the firm. The new ratio of A, B and C is 2:1:2. The sacrificing ratio is:
a) 1:1
b) 3:2
c) 1:2
d) 5:1
74. Test Check enables the Auditor to:
a) Reduce his work burden only
b) Reduce his responsibility only
c) Reduce both his work burden and his responsibility
d) All of the above.
75. Receipts & Payments Account records:
a) Cash transactions only
b) Credit transactions only
c) Both Cash & Credit transactions
d) None of the above
76. The Accountant of a Company forgot to record the payment of Rs. 5,000/- made to a temple for donation. It is:
a) Error of Principle
b) Error of Commission
c) Error of Duplication
d) None of the above
77. Which of the following items does not come under the head, “Income from Salaries”?
a) wages
b) pension
c) gratuity
d) None of the above
78. Cost Inflation Index is applicable in the case of:
a) Long-term Capital Gains only
b) Short-term Capital Gains only
c) Both Long-term and Short-term Capital Gains
d) None of the above.
79. As per Income-tax Act, 1961, the Deduction in respect of medical insurance premia comes under:
a) Section 80 C
b) 80 D
c) 80 E
d) 80 G.
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80. Which of the following statements is true?
a) Fixed cost is fixed per unit
b) Variable cost is variable per unit
c) Fixed cost is fixed only in the short period
d) None of the above.
81. Accounting Standard-3 describes :
a) Cash Flow Statement
b) Funds Flow Statement
c) Balance Sheet
d) Income Statement
82. International Accounting Standard Committee was formed in the year:
a) 1977
b) 1973
c) 1920
d) 1949
83. Valuation of Inventories is described by:
a) AS-6
b) AS-4
c) AS-10
d) AS-2
84. IFRSs are issued by:
a) IASC
b) IASB
c) ICAI
d) ICWA.
85. Accounting is a language of
a) Assets
b) Liabilities
c) Business
d) Balance Sheet
86. Which of the following organisations is not connected to the accounting Standard Setting process in India?
a) Accounting Standard Board ( ASB)
b) Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI)
c) Assam Industrial Development Corporation ( AIDC)
d) Institute of Cost and Works Accountants of India (ICWAI)
87. Disclosure of Accounting Policies is covered by
a) AS 1
b) AS 10
c) AS 12
d) AS 20
88. Accounting for Amalgamation is covered by
a) AS 6
b) AS 9
c) AS 14
d) AS 21
89. International Accounting Standards Board (IASB) was founded on
a) April 1, 2012
b) April 1, 2001
c) April 1, 1973
d) April 1, 1956
90. Debtors Ledger records
a) All credit transactions
b) Only credit sales
c) Both credit and cash transactions
d) None of the above
91. The source of information for credit sales is
a) Cash Book
b) Returns Outward Book
c) Journal Proper
d) Sales Day Book
92. Bad Debts previously written off, now recovered is recorded in
a) Total Debtors Account
b) Total Creditors Account
c) Cash Book
d) None of the above
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93. Cash collected from customers is entered in
a) Debit side of Total Debtors Account
b) Credit side of Total Debtors Account
c) Both Total Debtors and Total Creditors Account
d) None of the above
94. Under Self Balancing System, Trial Balance in prepared in
a) Only Debtors Ledger
b) Only Creditors Ledger
c) Only General Ledger
d) Each of the above three Ledgers
95. Under Hire Purchase System, ownership of goods passes from seller to buyer
a) After Down Payment is made
b) After payment of the last instalment
c) After signing the agreement
d) None of the above
96. Under Hire Purchase System, Down Payment includes
a) Interest for the first instalment
b) Interest for all the instalments
c) No Interest
d) Interest for the Cash Price
97. Hire Purchase Price means
a) Total Payments to be made by the buyer including interest
b) Only Cash Price
c) Cash Price Plus Down Payment
d) None of the above
98. The Hire Purchase agreement gives the buyer the right to get the possession of the goods
a) Immediately after signing the agreement
b) After the last payment is made
c) After Down Payment is made
d) None of the above.
99. Shortworking means
a) Excess of minimum rent over actual royalty
b) Excess of actual royalty over minimum rent
c) Difference between shortworking lapsed and shortworking recouped
d) None of the above
100. The agreement in connection with ‘Royalty’ is subject to the provisions of the
a) Indian Companies Act, 1956
b) Indian Partnership Act, 1932
c) Indian Contract Act, 1972
d) Income Tax Act, 1961
101. In the books of the lessee, the ‘Royalty’ account is closed by transferring to
a) Profit and Loss A/c
b) Manufacturing A/c
c) Trading A/c
d) Any of the above
102. In the books of the lessor, Shortworking lapsed is a
a) Loss
b) Gain
c) Liability
d) None of the above
103. For recoupment of past Shortworking, in the books of the lessee
a) Landlord A/c is debited
b) Landlord A/c is credited
c) Shortworking A/c is debited
d) None of the above.
104. Receipts and Payments account generally starts with
a) Closing balance of cash
b) Closing balance of bank
c) Opening balance of cash and bank
d) Opening balance of cash and/or bank
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105. Receipts and Payments account records the transactions of
a) capital nature only
b) revenue nature only
c) both capital and revenue nature
d) None of the above.
106. Income and expenditure account is
a) Just like Balance sheet
b) Just like Profit and Loss account
c) Just like Cash book
d) None of the above.
107. Life membership fee is a
a) Capital receipt
b) Revenue receipt
c) Capital expenditure
d) None of the above
108. Not for profit organisation prepares
a) Income and expenditure acount
b) Trading account
c) Profit and Loss account.
d) None of the above.
109. Income and expenditure account shows
a) Cash in hand
b) Cash at bank
c) Capital expenditure
d) Excess of income over expenditure.
110. Subscription received in advance is treated as
a) An income
b) An asset
c) Capital
d) A liability.
111. Profit on sale of old furniture of a club is shown on the
a) Credit side of Profit and Loss A/c
b) Income side of Income and Expenditure account
c) Both credit side and debit side of expenditure account
d) None of the above.
112. The minimum number of partners in a firm is:
a) Three
b) Two
c) Ten
d) Twenty
113. If the partnership deed is silent, Interest on partners’ loan is allowed @:
a) 4%
b) 6%
c) 5%
d) 10%
114. When a new partner pays cash for goodwill, the amount is credited to:
a) Premium for goodwill Account
b) Partner’s loan Account
c) New partner’s Drawings Account
d) Investment Account
115. On the admission of a new partner, the increase in the values of assets is
a) Debited to Revaluation Account
b) Credited to Revaluation Account
c) Transferred to Reserve Account
d) None of the above
116. Profit on revaluation of assets and liabilities is shared by the old partners in:
a) Sacrificing ratio
b) New ratio
c) Old ratio
d) Gaining ratio
117. A company is :
a) An artificial person
b) A Natural person
c) A Club
d) Non-trading organisation
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118. Shareholders are:
a) Creditors of the company
b) Employees of the company
c) Officers of the company
d) None of the above
119. Shares can be forfeited due to :
a) Non-payment of Bank loan
b) Non-payment of Call money
c) Failure to attend meeting
d) None of the above
120. Premium on issue of shares should be shown on the :
a) Asset side of the Balance Sheet
b) Liability side of the Balance Sheet
c) Credit side of the Profit & Loss Account
d) Debit side of the Profit & Loss Account
121. Profit & Loss Account is also known as:
a) Income & Expenditure Account
b) Position Statement
c) Cash Flow statement
d) None of the above
122. Current ratio is the relation between:
a) Current Asset and fixed Asset
b) Current Asset and Net profit
c) Current Asset and Investment
d) None of the above
123. If current ratio is 2:1 and Current assets are Rs. 5,00,000/-, then Current liabilities are:
a) Rs. 3,00,000/-
b) 10,00,000/-
c) 1,00,000/-
d) None of the above.
124. AS-9 deals with:
a) the principle of Revenue Recognition
b) Depreciation
c) Amalgamation of Companies
d) Disclosure of Accounting Policies.
125. The difference between goods sent to branch and goods received by branch represents:
a) Cash in transit
b) Cash lost in transit
c) goods lost in transit
d) None of the above
126. Advertisement expenses are apportioned among different departments on the basis of:
a) Purchases
b) Profits
c) Production
d) Sales.
127. Goodwill is :
a) An intangible asset
b) A tangible asset
c) A Current asset
d) None of the above.
128. Super Profit is the:
a) Excess of normal profit over actual profit
b) Excess of actual profit over normal profit
c) Excess of gross profit over net profit
d) Excess of current year’s profit over previous year’s profit.
129. ‘Bank of Last Resort’ represents :
a) BOI
b) SBI
c) UBI
d) RBI
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130. Working capital is the:
a) Excess of current assets over current liabilities
b) Excess of current liabilities over current asset
c) Excess of fixed assets over current liabilities
d) Excess of fixed assets over current assets.
131. Contribution is the:
a) Excess of fixed assets over current assets
b) Excess of sales over variable cost
c) Excess of sales over current assets
d) None of the above
132. Margin of safety is the:
a) Excess B.E.P sales over actual sales
b) Excess actual sales over B.E.P sales
c) Excess fixed assets over current assets
d) None of the above
133. In absence of Partnership Deed, profits and losses of the firm are shared by partners:
a) in gaining ratio
b) in sacrificing ratio
c) in capital ratio
d) equally
134. If profit volume ratio is 40%, variable cost is:
a) 360% of sales
b) 960% of sales
c) 760% of sales
d) None of the above.
135. If sale price is Rs. 200/-, Variable cost is Rs.150/- and Fixed cost is Rs. 1,00,000/-, then B.E.P is:
a) 1,000 units
b) 2,000 units
c) 3,000 units
d) 4,000 units.
136. If Subscription received Rs. 3,00,000/-, subscription outstanding for previous year Rs. 10,000/- and subscription outstanding for the current year is Rs. 20,000/-; then the amount of subscription to be credited to Income and Expenditure account is:
a) Rs. 3,10,000/-
b) Rs. 3,20,000/-
c) Rs. 3,30,000/-
d) Rs. 3,00,000/-.
137. Balance Sheet reflects:
a) Assets Only
b) Assets, Liabilities and Capital
c) Assets, Liabilities, Capital, income and expenses
d) All of the above
138. Balance sheet provides information of financial position of the enterprise:
a) at a point of time
b) over a period of time
c) for a period of time
d) None of the above.
139. Liquid assets consist of :
a) Current assets – Inventory
b) Current Assets – Inventories – Prepaid Expenses
c) All Current Assets
d) Profitability Ratio
140. Return on Capital is measured by:
a) Acid Test Ratio
b) Activity Ratio
c) Debt-Equity Ratio
d) Profitability Ratio
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141. ROI is calculated on:
a) Capital employed
b) Total Assets
c) Share Capital
d) None of the above.
142. Which of the following items results into an application of fund ?
a) Payment of Dividend
b) Issue of Share Capital
c) Sale of plant
d) None of the above.
143. Dividend received on shares held as investments is a cash flow from:
a) Financing activity
b) Investing activity
c) Operating activity
d) Any of the above
144. If Selling Price per unit is Rs. 12/-, Variable cost per unit is Rs. 9/-, then Profit Volume Ratio is :
a) 33.33%
b) 25%
c) 75%
d) 125%.
145. As per Income Tax Act. 1961, Previous Year starts from:
a) 1st April
b) 1st March
c) 1st January
d) 31st March.
146. The word ‘AUDIT’ has been derived from the word:
a) Audio
b) Audition
c) Audire
d) Audible.
147. In Auditing, Internal Check System means a system whereby :
a) the work of the organization is internally checked by the Auditor
b) the work of one employee is automatically checked by another employee
c) the work of the company is checked by Government
d) the works of the employees are checked by the Managing Director.
148. A voucher is :
a) a book of account
b) a transaction
c) a documentary evidence in support of a transaction
d) a technique of sample survey
149. At present, all income tax related matters are regulated in India by:
a) Income Tax Act, 1922
b) Income Tax Act, 1961
c) Income Tax Act, 1957
d) Income Tax Act, 2013.
150. Agricultural Income is fully exempt from income-tax under Section
a) 80 C of the Income Tax Act
b) 28 G of the Income Tax Act
c) 28 D of the Income Tax Act
d) 10(1) of the Income Tax Act
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STATISTICS
51. Laspeyre’s Index formula uses the weights of the:
a) Base year b) Current year
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of the above
52. If the consumer price Index for 2015 is 800, then the purchasing power of a rupee is:
a) 0.15 paise b) 12.5 paise
c) 8 paise d) None of the above
53. In India, the collection of vital statistics started for the first time in:
a) 1920 b) 1886
c) 1969 d) 1946
54. Vital statistics are obtained through:
a) Census operation b) Registration system
c) Survey method d) All of the above
55. Vital rates are generally expressed in:
a) Percentage b) Per thousand
c) Per million d) None of the above
56. The child bearing age in India is:
a) 20-28 years b) 20-29 years
c) 15-49 years d) None of the above
57. The death rate obtained for a segment of a population is known as:
a) Specific death rate b) Crude death rate
c) Infant mortality rate d) None of the above
58. The ratio of births to the total deaths in a year is called:
a) Survival rate b) Fertility rate
c) Vital Index d) None of the above
59. The relation between NRR and GRR is:
a) NRR = 1𝐺𝑅𝑅 b) NRR > GRR
c) NRR ≤ GRR d) None of the above
60. A complete life table is constructed for an age interval of:
a) 5 years b) 10 years
c) 1 year d) None of the above
61. A population maintaining a constant growth rate is said to be a :
a) Stable population b) Stationary population
c) Mobile population d) None of the above
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62. The NRR > 1 indicates that –
a) Increase in population b) Decrease in population
c) Constant in population size d) None of the above
63. An experimental design is:
a) A map b) A plan of experiment
c) An architect d) All of the above
64. The number of principles of design of experiment is:
a) 2 b) 3
c) 5 d) 10
65. For an (5X5) LSD, the d.f for error is –
a) 12 b) 24
c) 4 d) 5
66. In RBD local control is applied in …. way direction.
a) 2 b) 3
c) 1 d) None of the above
67. In the analysis of data of RBD with ‘b’ blocks and ‘t’ treatments , the d.f for error is :
a) t(b-1) b) b(t-1)
c) (b-1)(t-1) d) None of the above
68. The method of confounding is a device to reduce the size of :
a) Experiments b) Replications
c) Blocks d) None of the above
69. In 23 factorial experiment, the number of first order interaction effect is:
a) 4 b) 7
c) 3 d) 8
70. Replication in an experiment is means:
a) The number of blocks b) Total number of treatments
c) Repetition of the treatment d) None of the above
71. In CRD with ‘t’ treatments for ‘n’ experimental units the d.f for error is:
a) t-1 b) n-1
c) n-t d) None of the above
72. If n units are selected in a sample from N population units, then the sampling fraction is given by:
a) 1𝑛⁄ b) 𝑛𝑁⁄
c) 1𝑁⁄ d) None of the above
73. The number of possible sample of size n out of N population units without replacement is:
a) Nn b) 𝑁𝑛⁄
c) NCn d) n!
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74. Under proportional allocation, the size of the sample from each stratum depends on:
a) Total sample size b) Size of the stratum
c) Population size d) All of the above
75. Which of the following statement is correct?
a) V(ӯst)opt ≤ V(ӯn)R ≤ V(ӯst)prop
b) V(ӯst)opt ≤ V(ӯst)prop ≤ V(ӯn)R
c) V(ӯst)prop ≤ V(ӯst)opt ≤ V(ӯn)R
d) None of the above
76. In case of linear systematic sampling, the population size is:
a) Large b) Small
c) Multiple of sample size d) None of the above
77. When sample size increases then –
a) Sampling error increases b) Sampling error decreases
c) Sampling error remains constant d) None of the above
78. Census method is free from:
a) Non- Sampling error b) Sampling error
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of the above
79. Errors in a statistical model are always taken to be –
a) Independent b) Distributed as N(0, σe2)
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of the above
80. In random number table, the distribution of digits follows:
a) Normal distribution b) Uniform distribution
c) Binomial distribution d) None of the above
81. In schedule method , the questionnaire is filled by –
a) Respondent b) Enumerator
c) Investigator d) None of the above
82. From a Histogram , one can find the approximate value of –
a) Mean b) Mode
c) Median d) None of the above
83. Arithmetic mean is not independent of change of –
a) Origin b) Scale
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of the above
84. Coefficient of variation is a ………. number.
a) Pure b) Irrational
c) Complex number d) None of the above
85. β2 is the measure of –
a) Mean b) Skewness
c) Kurtosis d) None of the above
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86. The relation among μ4 , κ2 and κ4 is –
a) κ4 = μ4 b) κ4 = κ2 + μ42
c) μ4 = κ4 + 3κ22 d) None of the above
87. The best measure of dispersion is –
a) Range b) Quartile deviation
c) Mean deviation d) Standard deviation
88. Mean deviation about ………. is the least.
a) Mode b) Mean
c) Median d) Standard deviation
89. For positive skewed distribution –
a) Mean > Median > Mode
b) Mean = Median = Mode
c) Mean < Median < Mode
d) None of the above
90. For two distinct observations, which of the following is correct?
a) AM > GM > HM b) AM < GM < HM
c) AM = GM = HM d) None of the above
91. Skewness means ……….
a) Symmetry b) Lack of symmetry
c) Homogeneous d) None of the above
92. The coefficient of correlation lies between –
a) 0 to 1 b) 0 to ∞
c) -1 to 1 d) 0 to 2
93. The sign of regression coefficient depends on –
a) Mean b) Standard deviation
c) Correlation coefficient d) None of the above
94. The product of two regression coefficients can never be greater than –
a) 2 b) 0
c) 1 d) None of the above
95. The value of β2 is always –
a) 0 b) Greater than 1
c) Less than -1 d) None of the above
96. If A and B are two mutually exhaustive events, then P(AUB) is –
a) P(A) b) 1
c) 0 d) P(B)
-19-
97. If P(A/B) = P(A) then A and B are ………. events.
a) Mutually exclusive events b) Dependent
c) Independent d) Equally likely
98. If A is a certain event then P(A) is –
a) 0 b) 2
c) >0 d) 1
99. If X and Y are two …….. random variables then V(X±Y) = V(X) + V(y)
a) Any b) Independent
c) Dependent d) None of the above
100. If A and B are two independent events then –
a) Ac and Bc are also independent
b) Ac and B are also independent
c) A and Bc are also independent
d) All of the above
101. If X is a random variable, then
a) E(X2) ≥ (E(X))2 b) E(X2) = E(5X)
c) E(X2) < (E(X))2 d) E(X2) = 0
102. For two distributions with different units of measurement, the variation of
Data can be compared by –
a) Mean b) Range
c) Coefficient of variation d) Median
103. If ‘a’ and ‘b’ are constants, then V(aX ± b) = ?
a) aV(X) ± b b) aV(X) – b
c) a2V(X) d) None of the above
104. If X and Y are independent random variables, then covariance(X,Y) =?
a) 2 b) 5
c) 0 d) 1
105. Two dice are rolled together, if the probability of the event(A) that
the sum of numbers on two dice is 8, then P(A) –
a) 5/8 b) 1/2
c) 1/4 d) 5/36
106. Binomial distribution has ….. number of parameters.
a) 3 b) 1
c) 2 d) 5
107. When p=q, then the Binomial distribution will be –
a) Homogeneous b) Symmetrical
c) Skewed d) None of the above
-20-
108. Poisson distribution is –
a) Symmetrical b) Positively skewed
c) Negatively skewed d) None of the above
109. If A and B are mutually exclusive events then P(AB)= ?
a) 1 b) 3
c) 2 d) 0
110. For normal distribution –
a) β1=0 b) β2=3
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of the above
111. If X~N(5,49) then the distribution of Y=2X is –
a) N(10,14) b) N(5,49)
c) N(10,98) d) N(10,196)
112. The area under the normal curve beyond μ ± 3σ for the variable X is –
a) 0.6826 b) 0.9544
c) 0.9973 d) 0.0027
113. If X is a random variable with mean μ then E(X-μ)r is known as –
a) Variance b) Skewness
c) Central moment of order r d) None of the above
114. When r = ±1, two regression lines will be –
a) Perpendicular b) Parallel
c) Coincide d) None of the above
115. The two regression lines passes through the point –
a) (a,b) b) (mean of X,Mean of Y)
c) (σx , σy) d) None of the above
116. Goodness of fit can be tested by –
a) t-test b) F-test
c) χ2-test d) Ƶ-test
117. For testing the equality of population variances, which of the following distribution is used.
a) Normal b) t-distribution
c) F-distribution d) None of the above
118. The degrees of freedom for student’s t based on a random sample of size n
is:
a) n-1 b) n-2
c) n d) n-3
119. For large sample test, the sample size should be –
a) 10 b) >30
c) <25 d) None of the above
-21-
120. The probability of Type-I is called –
a) Null hypothesis b) Level of significance
c) Critical region d) None of the above
121. The probability level of correct decision in case of testing a null hypothesis is:
a) Power b) Size of critical region
c) β d) None of the above
122. Which of the following is true?
a) 1-β <0 b) 1-β ≥ level of significance(α)
c) 1-β = 2 d) None of the above
123. Under the following condition Power=Level of significance –
a) When alternative hypothesis becomes null hypothesis
b) When α=β
c) When the error is zero
d) None of the above
124. Neyman-Pearson’s lemma is used –
a) For unbiased test
b) For construction of most powerful critical region
c) For minimax test
d) None of the above
125. The degree of freedom for χ2 statistic in case of contingency table of order of (3X3) is –
a) 4 b) 6
c) 9 d) 12
126. Factorization theorem is related to study the property of –
a) Unbiasedness b) Consistency
c) Sufficiency d) None of the above
127. Rejecting a null hypothesis Ho when Ho is always true is –
a) Type II error b) Type I error
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of the above
128. In case of efficient estimator ‘t’, the V(t) is the –
a) Maximum b) Least
c) -5 d) None of the above
129. The probability of all the possible outcomes of a random experiment is equal to:
a) Infinity b) Zero
c) One d) None of the above
130. If X~N(μ,σ2), the maximum probability at the point X=μ is:
a) 1√2𝛱 e-1/2 b) 1√2𝛱𝜎
c)1√2𝛱𝜎 e-1/2 d) 1√2𝛱
-22-
131. Test of null hypothesis Ho: μ=70 vs. H1: μ>70 leads to –
a) One sided test (left)
b) One sided test(right)
c) Two failed test.
d) None of the above
132. The mean of chi-square distribution n d.o.f is –
a) 2n b) n2
c) √𝑛 d) n
133. If X is a random variable, then the moment generating function of X is given by:
a) E[ etX ] b) E[ Xt ]
c) E[ SX ] d) None of the above
134. The size of critical region under Ho is called:
a) Power b) Level of significance
c) β d) None of the above
135. Which of following distribution possessing the memoryless property :
a) Uniform b) Geometric
c) Normal d) Gamma
136. Name the following distribution for which mean and variance are equal:
a) Binomial b) Normal
c) Poisson d) Exponential
137. In case of normal population, the sample mean is –
a) Unbiased estimate b) Consistent estimator
c) Most efficient d) All of the above
138. In time series, the number of components is –
a) 5 b) 10
c) 8 d) 4
139. The long term effect in time series is known as:
a) Trend b) Seasonal
c) Cyclical d) Irregular
140. Seasonal variation in a time series is:
a) Regular movement b) Oscillatory movement
c) Period less than one year d) Both (a) and (c)
141. Method of least square to fit in the trend is applicable only if the trend is:
a) Linear b) Parabolic
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of the above
142. If the slope of the trend line is positive, it shows:
a) Rising trend b) Declining trend
c) Stagnation d) Any one of the above
143. Index numbers are also known as:
a) Economic barometer b) Lactometer
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of the above
-23-
144. Index numbers are generally expressed as:
a) In ratios b) In percentage
c) In thousands d) None of the above
145. Base period for an Index number should be:
a) A normal period
b) Should not be too long or too short from current period
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the above
146. The ideal Index number is:
a) Laspeyre’s price Index number
b) Paache’s price Index number
c) Fisher’s price Index number
d) None of the above
147. Laspeyre’s Index number possess:
a) Downward bias b) No bias
c) Upward bias d) None of the above
148. The condition for time reversal test to be satisfied with usual notation is:
a) P01 . V01 = V01 b) P01 . P10 = 1
c) P01 . V01 = 1 d) None of the above
149. Any Index number is:
a) Pure number b) Expressed in rupees
c) Expressed in kgs d) None of the above
150. The geometric mean of Laspeyre’s and Paache’s price Index numbers is:
a) Kelly’s price Index number b) Edgeworth price Index number
c) Fisher’s price Index number d) None of the above
MATHEMATICS
51. If the function f (x) is continuous at x a then
(a) f (x) is differentiable at x a
(b) lim ( )
x a
f x
may not exist
(c) lim ( ) ( )
x a
f x f a
(d) None of the above
52. The function
1
sin , 0
( )
0, 0
x x
f x x
x
(a) Has a removable discontinuity at x 0
(b) Is continuous at x 0
(c) Is monotonically increasing
(d) Is monotonically decreasing
-24-
53. Let
, 0
( )
, 0
x x
f x
x x
(a) f (x) is not continuous at x 0
(b) f (x) is not differentiable at x 0
(c) f (0) exists and is equal to 1.
(d) None of the above
54. Let x a( sin ), y a(1cos ) . Then
dy
dx
is equal to
(a)
cos
1 sin
(b)
sin
1 cos
(c)
1 sin
cos
(d)
1 cos
sin
55. The function
3 2
( ) 6 17
3 2
x x
f x x is
(a) Strictly increasing in
(b) Strictly increasing in the interval (2,3)
(c) Strictly decreasing in the interval (2,3)
(d) None of the above
56. Let f (x) sin ax then
3
3
d y
dx
is equal to
(a) 3 a cos ax
(b) 3 sin ax
(c) 3 a sin ax
(d) 3 cos ax
57. The equation of the tangent to the curve
3 2 y 3x 7x x 1 at (2,1) is
(a) 9x y 19 0
(b) y 9x 19 0
(c) 9x y 19 0
(d) None of the above
58. Let f (x) be differentiable in [a, b] and let f (c) 0 for some c,a c b . Then
(a) f has a maximum at x c
(b) f has a minimum at x c
(c) f has neither a maximum nor a minimum at x c
(d) f may have a maximum at x c
59. For
6 5 4 3 f (x) 10x 24x 15x 40x 108 the stationary points, i.e. the points where
f (x) 0, are x 0 and x 2. Then
(a) f (2) is a maximum
(b) f (0) is a maximum
(c) f (2) is a minimum
(d) f (0) is a minimum
-25-
60. For the conclusion of Rolle’s theorem to hold for the function f (x) in the interval [a,b]
(a) f (a) and f (b) must be of opposite signs
(b) f (a) 0
(c) f (b) 0
(d) f (a) and f (b) must be equal
61. The formula for L’Hospital’s rule is
(a)
( ) ( )
lim lim
x a ( ) x a ( )
f x f x
g x g x
(b)
( ) ( )
lim
x a ( ) ( )
f x f a
g x g a
(c)
( ) ( )
lim lim
x a ( ) x a ( )
f x f x
g x g x
(d) None of the above
62. The value of
1 2
1 log
lim
x 1 2
x x
x x
is equal to
(a) 0
(b)
1
2
(c)
1
2
(d) 1
63. The partial derivative of
3 2 f (x, y) 3x x y 2xy 27y 3 with respect to x at the point
(0,3) is
(a) 6
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 3
64. If xyz u e then
2u
y x
is equal to
(a) (1 ) xyz xe xyz
(b) (1 ) xyz ye xyz
(c) (1 ) xyz ze xyz
(d) None of the above
65. If u f (x, y) is a homogeneous function of degree 2 in x, y, then
(a)
u u
x y u
x y
(b) 2
u u
x y u
x y
(c)
u u
x y u
x y
(d) 2
u u
x y u
x y
66. Choose the correct statement from the options below:
(a) A continuous function is integrable and differentiable
(b) A continuous function is integrable but may not be differentiable
(c) If a continuous function is integrable then it must be differentiable
(d) None of the above
-26-
67.
2 x
dx
x
(a) 2log x x C
(b) log(x 2) x C
(c) 2log(x 2) C
(d) None of the above
68. If
5 3
y (x3 2×2 5×2 10x)dx and y 0 when x 0 then
(a)
7 5
4 2 2 2 1 4
2 5 1
4 7
y x x x x
(b)
7 5
4 2 2 2 1 4
2 5
4 7
y x x x x
(c)
7 5
4 2 2 2 1 4
2 5 1
4 7
y x x x x
(d)
7 5
4 2 2 2 1 4
2 5
4 7
y x x x x
69. Let u and v be two functions of x . Then the formula for integration by parts is given by
(a) uvdx u vdx vudx
(b) uvdx u vdx vudx
(c)
du
uvdx u vdx vdx dx
dx
(d)
du
uvdx u vdx vdx dx
dx
70.
2
( 1)( 1)
xdx
x x
(a) log(x 1) log(x 1) C
(b) log(x 1) log(x 1) C
(c) log(x 1) log(x 1) C
(d) None of the above
71. 2 sin xdx
(a) 2 cos x C
(b)
1
( cos 2 )
2
x x C
(c)
1
( sin 2 )
2
x x C
(d)
1
( sin 2 )
2
x x C
-27-
72.
2
0
[x]dx
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) Does not exist
73. Which of the following is not correct?
(a) 2 2
0 0
sinxdx cosxdx
(b) 2
0 0
cosxdx 2 cosxdx
(c) 2
0 0
sinxdx 2 sinxdx
(d) None of the above
74. Let a c b. Then
(a) ( ) ( ) ( )
b c b
a a c
f x dx f x dx f x dx
(b) ( ) ( ) ( )
b c b
a a c
f x dx f x dx f x dx
(c) ( ) ( ) ( )
b c b
a a c
f x dx f x dx f x dx
(d) None of the above
75.
5
3 5
5
(x 5sin x)dx
(a) 0
(b) 10
(c) 15
(d) 20
76. The area bounded by the straight line x 2y 2 0, x-axis, y-axis and the line x 4 is equal to
(a) 4 square units
(b) 6 square units
(c) 8 square units
(d) 10 square units
77. The order of the differential equation
2 2
2 1
d y dy
dx dx
is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 0
78. The degree of the differential equation
2
2 1
dy
x
dx
is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d)
1
2
-28-
79. The order and degree of the differential equation of the family of circles touching the x-axis at the
origin, are respectively
(a) 1, 1
(b) 1, 2
(c) 2, 1
(d) 2, 2
80. If y(t) is a solution of (1 ) 1
dy
t ty
dt
and y(0) 1 then y(1) is
(a)
1
2
(b)
1
2
e
(c)
1
2
e
(d)
1
2
81. Consider the following statements:
(I) There is a set which has exactly 1 subset.
(II) There is no set having exactly 100 subsets.
Now select the correct option below:
(a) Only (I) is true
(b) Only (II) is true
(c) Both (I) and (II) are true
(d) Both (I) and (II) are false
82. There are 25 members in a cricket club. There are 5 of them who can play as both wicketkeeper
and bowler. There are 15 who can play as bowler and 7 who can play as wicketkeeper. How many
are neither bowlers nor wicketkeepers?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 7
(d) 8
83. The relation ≥ (greater than or equal to) in the set of real number is
(a) Reflexive but not transitive
(b) Reflexive and symmetric
(c) Reflexive and transitive
(d) Symmetric and transitive
84. Which of the relations below on the set {x, y, z} is an equivalence relation?
(a) {(x, y), (y, x), (y, z), (z, y), (z, x), (x, z)}
(b) {(x, x), (x, y), (y, x)}
(c) {(x, x), (y, y), (z, z)}
(d) None of the above
85. LetA = {1, 2, 3, 4} and B = {x, y, z}. Then
(a) There is no mapping f : A→B which is one-to-one
(b) Every mapping f : A→B is onto
(c) There are exactly 3 mappings f : A→B which are not onto
(d) None of the above
86. The set of rational numbers is
(a) Countably infinite
(b) Uncountable
(c) Finite
(d) None of the above
87. The quadratic expression 2 5x 8x 4
(a) is > 0 for all real values of x
(b) is equal to zero for two distinct real numbers
(c) has a zero at
4
5
x .
(d) None of the above
-29-
88. The roots of the equation 2 9x 6x 1 are
(a) Real and equal
(b) Equal in magnitude but opposite in sign
(c) Not real
(d) None of the above
89. The equation 3 2 x x x 2 0 has
(a) All roots real
(b) Exactly one real root
(c) All roots imaginary
(d) None of the above
90. The product of the roots of the equation 2 3 2 5x 17x 19x 107x 0 is
(a) 0
(b)
17
5
(c)
107
5
(d)
19
5
91. If , , are the roots of the equation 3 2 x 4x 8x 11 0 then the value of
2 2 2
equals
(a) 0
(b) 4
(c) 8
(d) 16
92. The simplified value of the following expression is
2 2
2 2
x x x x e e e e
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d)
1
2
93. The value of the expression
1
log11 log
11
is equal to
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) None of the above
94. Let A, G and H be the arithmetic, geometric and harmonic means of n given positive numbers.
Then
(a)
AG H
(b) H AG
(c) H G A
(d) G H A
95. The minimum value of
1 4 4 , x x x , is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 1
(d) None of the above
-30-
96. The sequence {( 1) } n is
(a) Convergent
(b) Divergent
(c) Oscillatory
(d) None of the above
97. The sequence {2n}
is
(a) Convergent
(b) Divergent
(c) Oscillatory
(d) None of the above
98. Let
1
n
n
a
be a series of positive numbers. Now select the correct statement from below:
(a)
1
n
n
a
is convergent whenever lim 0 n
n
a
(b)
1
n
n
a
is convergent if and only if lim 0 n
n
a
(c)
1
n
n
a
is not convergent if lim 0 n
n
a
(d) None of the above
99. The geometric series
1
1
n
n
r
is
(a) Convergent if r 1
(b) Convergent if r 1
(c) Convergent if | r |1
(d) None of the above
100. For any two complex numbers 1 z and 2 z
(a) 1 2 1 2 | z | | z || z z |
(b) 1 2 1 2 | z | | z || z z |
(c) 1 2 1 2 || z | | z ||| z z |
(d) 1 2 1 2 || z | | z ||| z z |
101. Choose the correct statement below:
(a) The moduli of a complex number and its conjugate are equal
(b) The arguments of a complex number and its conjugate are equal
(c) If the arguments of two complex numbers are equal then their moduli are equal
(d) None of the above
102. Let be a complex cube root of 1. Then
(a) 2 is a real number
(b) 2 1 0
(c) 2 1 0
(d) 2 1 0
103. There are 10 boxes to keep 11 medals. Then
(a) Every box will get at least one medal
(b) At least one box will contain 2 or more medals
(c) At least one box will contain no medal
(d) None of the above
-31-
104. The inside of an auditorium has 8 different electric lights, all connected to different switches. In
how many different ways can the auditorium be lit?
(a) 8
(b) 8!
(c) 256
(d) 255
105. How many 4-digit numbers can formed with the digits 0, 1, 2, 3?
(a) 192
(b) 256
(c) 24
(d) None of the above
106. In how many ways can 12 apples be distributed among 4 boys so that every boy gets at least 1
apple?
(a) 165
(b) 495
(c) 455
(d) None of the above
107. Suppose A and B be two mutually exclusive events. Then
(a) A and B are independent events
(b) P(AB) 0
(c) P(AB) 0
(d) None of the above
108. If A and B are independent events then
(a) P(AB) P(A)P(B)
(b) P(AB) P(A) P(B)
(c) P(AB) P(B) P(A)
(d) None of the above
109. A local football club has 15 players including 3 foreign players. A team of 11 players is selected
at random. What is the probability that all 3 foreign players are selected?
(a)
33
91
(b)
2
3
(c)
11
15
(d) None of the above
110. A coin is tossed three times. The probability of getting a result in the third toss different from
those obtained in the first two tosses is
(a)
1
2
(b)
1
4
(c)
1
8
(d)
1
16
111. The value of the determinant
2
2
2
1
1
1
where is a complex cube root of 1, is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c)
(d) 2
112. Let a be a diagonal entry of a skew-symmetric real matrix A. Then
(a) a must be positive
(b) a must be negative
(c) a = 0
(d) None of the above
-32-
113. Choose the correct statement below:
(a) Matrix addition is not commutative
(b) Matrix multiplication is commutative
(c) An invertible matrix has determinant not equal to 0
(d) None of the above
114. The matrix
0 1
0 0
is
(a) Nilpotent
(b) Idempotent
(c) Invertible
(d) Skew-symmetric
115. The eigenvalues of the matrix
1 0 0
1 1 0
2 0 2
are
(a) All real and distinct
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 1 and 2
(d) None of the above
116. Select the correct statement below:
(a) Eigenvalues of two distinct matrices can never be the same
(b) Every square matrix satisfies its characteristic equation
(c) The eigenvalues of real matrices are real and distinct
(d) None of the above
117. If cos
1
x
x
then sin
(a)
1
1
x
x
(b)
2 1
1
x
x
(c)
2 1
1
x
x
(d) None of the above
118. The value of 0 sin75 is
(a)
6 2
4
(b)
6 2
4
(c)
2 6
4
(d)
6 2
2
-33-
119. If
7
sin
25
and is in the 4th quadrant then
(a)
7
tan
24
(b)
24
cos
25
(c)
24
cot
7
(d)
25
sec
24
120. Select the correct statement:
(a) 1 3
sin ( 1)
2
because
3
sin 1
2
(b) 1 sin ( 1)
2
(c) The domain of the inverse trigonometric function sin1 x is [0,2 ]
(d) None of the above
121. The simplified value of
1 3
sin 2cos
5
is
(a)
24
25
(b)
7
25
(c)
7
25
(d)
24
25
122. If 2sin 1,0
2 2
x
x
then
(a)
5
6
x
(b)
3
x
(c) x has exactly 2 solutions in the given interval
(d) x has no solution in the given interval
123. In a triangle ABC the measure of angle Ais 60o , side a is 6 cm and side b is 2 cm. What is
the measure of angle B ?
(a) 90o
(b) 60o
(c) 30o
(d) 45o
124. In a triangle ABC the sides a, b and c are of lengths 2 cm, 4 cm and 2 3 cm respectively. What is
the measure of angle C?
(a) 90o
(b) 60o
(c) 30o
(d) 45o
125. The simplified form of the expression
12(cos 23 sin 23 )
6(cos 293 sin 293 )
o o
o o
i
i
is
(a) 2i
(b) 2 (1i)
(c) 2i
(d) 2(i 1)
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126. The sum of the series
1 1 1
1
3 5 7
is
(a)
2
(b)
4
(c)
8
(d) None of the above
127. Select the correct statement from below:
(a) It is not possible to add two vectors of different directions
(b) Multiplication of a vector with a scalar always increases the magnitude of the vector
(c) The zero vector has no direction
(d) None of the above
128. The dot product of the two vectors iˆ 3 ˆj 4kˆ and 2iˆ ˆj kˆ is equal to
(a) 3
(b) 3iˆ
(c) 3 ˆj
(d) 3kˆ
129. The cross product ab of the vectors a iˆ ˆj kˆ and b 2 ˆj kˆ is equal to
(a) 3iˆ ˆj 2kˆ
(b) 3iˆ ˆj 2kˆ
(c) 3iˆ ˆj 2kˆ
(d) 3iˆ ˆj 2kˆ
130. Given three vectors a,b and c the scalar triple product a (b c) is
(a) the volume of the parallelepiped defined by the three vectors given
(b) the area of a triangle whose sides are represented by the given vectors
(c) the perimeter of a triangle whose sides are represented by the given vectors
(d) none of the above
131. Choose the correct formula from below:
(a) a (b c) (a c)b (a b)c
(b) a (b c) (a c)b (a b)c
(c) a (b c) (b a)c (a c)b
(d) a (b c) (b c)a (a c)b
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132. Let f be a vector function and let be the vector differential operator. Which of the following is
false?
(a) ( f ) 0
(b) (f ) 0
(c) ( f ) 0
(d) None of the above
133. Consider the equations below:
(I)
2 2 x y 6x 8y 24 0
(II)
2 2 x y 6x 8y 0
(a) Equation (I) represents a circle but (II) does not
(b) Equation (I) represents a circle but (II) does not
(c) The two equations represent concentric circles
(d) The two equations represent degenerate circles
134. Consider the circle represented by the equation
2 2 x y 2x 10y 25 0. Then
(a) The y – axis is a tangent to the circle at the point (0, 5)
(b) The x – axis is a normal to the circle at the point (0, 5)
(c) There is no tangent to the circle passing through the origin
(d) The radius of the circle is 5 units
135. The equation of a circle of radius r in parametric form is
(a) x r sec , y r tan
(b) x r cos , y r sin
(c) x cos r , y sin r
(d) None of the above
136. For the parabola
2 y 4ax which of the following is true?
(a) The coordinates of the vertex is (a, 0)
(b) The coordinates of the focus is (0, 0)
(c) The equation of the axis is x = 0.
(d) The length of the latus rectum is 4a
137. The focus of a parabola is (3, 0) and the equation of its directrix is x 3. The equation of the
parabola is:
(a)
2 x 12y
(b)
2 y 12x
(c)
2 x 12y
(d)
2 y 12x
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138. The equation of the tangent to the parabola
2 y 8x at the point (2,4) is?
(a) x y 2
(b) y x 2
(c) x y 2
(d) None of the above
139. For the ellipse
2 2
1
25 9
x y
(a) The eccentricity is
5
4
(b) The length of latus rectum is
9
5
(c) Equations of the directrices are
25
4
x
(d) None of the above
140. A circle is a special case of an ellipse when
(a) the eccentricity is equal to 0
(b) the equation of the directrices are x y
(c) the major axis becomes infinite
(d) None of the above
141. The equation of the normal to the ellipse
2 2 x 2y 9 at the point (1,2) is
(a) x 4y 9
(b) y 4x 9
(c) y 4x 2
(d) 4x y 2
142. The equation xy 4 represents
(a) A circle
(b) An ellipse
(c) A pair of straight lines
(d) A rectangular hyperbola
143. What is the centre of the hyperbola represented by the equation
2 2 4x 5y 40x 30y 45 0 ?
(a) (5,3)
(b) (3,5)
(c) (5,3)
(d) None of the above
144. An equation for the hyperbola with center (0, 0), vertex (0, 5), and asymptotes
5
3
y x is
(a)
2 2
1
25 9
x y
(b)
2 2
1
9 25
x y
(c)
2 2
1
25 9
y x
(d) None of the above
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145. Which of the triads below represents the direction cosines of a line?
(a) 1, 0, 1
(b) 1, 1, 0
(c) 1, 1, 1
(d)
1 1
, ,0
2 2
146. The direction cosines of a line perpendicular to the plane 8x y 4z 1 are
(a) l 8,m 1,n 4
(b)
8 1 4
, ,
9 9 9
l m n
(c) l 0,m 1,n 0
(d) None of the above
147. Let 1 1 1 l ,m , n and 2 2 2 l ,m , n be the direction ratios of two perpendicular lines. Then
(a) 1 2 1 2 1 2 l l m m n n 1
(b) 1 2 1 2 1 2 l m m n n l 0
(c)
2 2 2 2 2 2
1 1 1 2 2 2 (l m n )(l m n ) 1
(d) 1 2 1 2 1 2 l l m m n n 0
148. The equation to the tangent plane at the point (1,0,0) of the sphere
2 2 2 x y z 1 is
(a) x 1
(b) y 0
(c) z 0
(d) x 0
149. The direction cosines of the normal to the sphere
2 2 2 (x 3) ( y 4) z 16 at the point
(3,0,0) are
(a) l 0,m 1,n 0
(b) l 1,m 0,n 0
(c) l 0,m 0,n 1
(d) None of the above
150. If f (x) [x] is the greatest integer function then
1
lim ( )
x
f x
is equal to
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) Does not exist
APDCL Previous Years Question Paper for Asst Accounts Officer AAO
Previous year exam for APDCL AAO had two papers, viz. Paper 1 contains General English and General Knowledge and Paper 2 had General Mathematics and one of optional subjects of Accountancy/Statistics/Mathematics.
Here Paper 1 (General English and General Knowledge) is discussed.
PART A: GENERAL ENGLISH
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. (Q No. 1-10)
The greatest enemy of mankind, as people have discovered, is not science but war. Science merely reflects the prevailing social forces. It is found that, when there is peace science is constructive; when there is war, science is perverted to destructive ends. The weapons which science gives us do not necessarily cause war; they make war increasingly terrible. Till now, it has brought us to the doorstep of doom. Our main problem, therefore, is not to curb science, but to stop war- to substitute law for force, and international government for anarchy in the relations for one nation with another. That is a job in which everybody must participate, including the scientists. But the bombing of Hiroshima suddenly woke us up to the fact that we have very little time. The hour is late and our work has scarcely begun. Now we are face to face with an urgent question-‘Can education and tolerance, understanding and creative intelligence run fast enough to keep us abreast with our own mounting capacity to destroy’? That is the question that we shall have to answer one way or the other in this generation. Science must help us in arriving at the answer. But the main decision lies within ourselves.
1. According to the writer, the real enemy of mankind is not science but war, because a) Science merely invents weapons with which war is fought. b) Science during wars becomes destructive. c) The weapons invented by science necessarily leads to war. d) The weapons invented by science do not cause war, though these make war more destructive.
2. War can be stopped, if a) Science is not allowed to push us to destruction. b) We replace force and lawlessness by law and international government. c) Science is restricted to be used only during war time. d) Weapons invented by science are not used to launch a war.
3. According to the passage, the main problem we are faced with is to- a) Stop science from reflecting social forces. b) Stop scientific activities altogether. c) Abolish war. d) Prevent scientists from participating in destructive activities.
4. Our capacity to destroy can be kept under control by a) Encouraging social forces. b) Education and broadmindedness. c) Constructive thinking. d) Both b) & c) above together.
5. The expression ‘bring to the doorstep of doom’ means a) Lead to the threshold of a new destiny. b) Indulge in a ruinous activity. c) Introduces to an unpredictable future. d) Leads close to death and destruction.
6. Which one of the following statements is not implied in the passage? a) People needlessly blame science for war.b) Science is misused for destructive purposes c) Science or the weapons invented by it do not add to the horrors of war. d) The role of science in ensuring world peace is subsidiary to that of man.
7. The phrase ‘our work has scarcely begun’ in the passage implies that our work a) Has not yet begun. b) Has just begun. c) Has been halfway through. d) Has begun but not completed.
8. The expression ‘keep abreast’ in the passage means a) Keep at a distance. b) Keep side by side. c) Hold out a challenge. d) Prevent from escaping.
9. Which one of the following will be the most suitable title of the passage? a) Science and social forces. b) Science and the horrors of war. c) Science and the problem of world peace. d) Science and man
10. The job in which everybody must participate is a) To curb science. b) To prefer international government. c) To establish anarchy in international relations. d) To do nothing of the above.
Directions: in each of the questions there is a sentence of which some parts are jumbled up. You are to rearrange these parts which are labelled P,Q,R & S to produce the current sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark in your answer sheet accordingly (Q No.11-20)
11. There was P. needed for its everyday life Q. a time when each family R. for itself most of the things it S. actually produced a) QRSP b) RQPS c) RSPQ d) QSRP
12. We have to P. as we see it Q. speak the truth R. there is falsehood and darkness S. even if all around us a) RQSP b) QRPS c) RSQP d) QPSR
13. The majestic mahogany table P. belongs to an old prince Q. which had one leg missing R. who is now impoverished S. but not without some pride a) PQSR b) QRSP c) PRSQ d) QPRS
14. We should have a P. to life, centered on positive values Q. more comprehensive approach R. as an individual is S. also a part of the society a) QPRS b) PQSR c) SRQP d) RPQS
15. If you need help – P. promptly and politely Q. ask for attendants R. to help our customers S. who have instructions a) SQPR b) QPSR c) QSRP d) SQRP
16. I shall go – P. my work here Q. to Kolkata R. I have finished S. after a) PQSR b) QRPS c) QSRP d) PRSQ
17. I saw P. a dead bull Q. while walking across R. the street S. yesterday a) PQRS b) QPRS c) QSRP d) SPQR
18. Little P. that he had been let down Q. stood by all these years R. did he realize S. by a colleague whom he had a) RPSQ b) RSQP c) QSRP d) QSPR
19. It was well known that P. the effect Q. is very bad R. on the children S. of cinema a) PSRQ b) SPQR c) SRPQ d) QSRP
20. He was so kind and generous that P. he not only Q. made others do so R. but also S. helped them himself a) PRSQ b) PSRQ c) SRQP d) QPRS
Directions: In the following questions each sentence contains blanks which are to be filled in with correct preposition or set of prepositions as demanded by the question.(21-30)
21. ______ the corner of the street stood a policeman ______ an umbrella, shivering in the rain. a) on, with b) near, under c) by, in d) at, under
22. ______ the cover of darkness, the enemy crept ______ the hill. a) in, over b) in, along c) under, up d) through, upon
23. The blind man was feeling ______ the table. a) in b) for c) by d) out
24. She was waiting for you ______ the table this morning. a) on b) at c) for d) with
25. You must dispense ______ your gardener. a) in b) of c) at d) with
26. ______ my words, I am telling you nothing ______ the truth. a) By, from b) upon, but c) on, outside d) by, but
27. His conduct is bad and his honesty is not ______ suspicion. a) above b) beyond c) under d) in
28. We must adapt ourselves ______ our circumstances. a) with b) in c) to d) by
29. Children are the delight ______ the house a) for b) of c) to d) with
30. He is unreliable; do not count ______ his help. a) for b) on c) in d) about
Directions: Given below are ten incomplete sentences. Below each sentence you will find words or phrases marked a), b), c),d). Choose the word or phrase that best completes the sentence. (Q No. 31-40)
31. Travellers ______ their reservations well in advance if they want to travel during the Diwali holidays. a) had better to get b) had to get better c) had better get d) better had get
32. What a sensation it would cause if it ______ now discovered that such a vital diary had been left behind. a) is b) be c) was d) were
33. We felt as if the ground were ______ beneath our feet. a) bursting b) sinking c) slipping d) smashing
34. I could not ______ what he wanted to say. a) make up b) make out c) make in d) make away
35. When I saw him through the window ______ a) I have run out to open the door. b) I ran out to open the door. c) I am running out to open the door. d) I should run out to open the door
36. If I take a state roadways bus, I will get late ______? a) isn’t it b) won’t I c) will I d) is it
37. She is accustomed ______ doing work under any type of circumstances. a) to b) with c) of d) in
38. He has such good manners that he can easily ______ a gentleman a) pass out b) pass for c) pass in d) pass on
39. What you have done ______ no excuse. a) admits b) admits to c) admits of d) admits about
40. He was caught red-handed and could not ______ the charges. a) refute b) refuse c) rebuke d) revoke
Directions: In the following questions, out of four alternatives choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences (Q NO. 41-50)
41. Words written on a tomb. a) Epithet b) Epigraph c) Epitaph d) Memorial
42. Something no longer in use. a) Desolate b) Absolute c) Obsolete d) Primitive
43. Belief in opinion contrary to what is generally accepted. a) Unbelief b) Superstition c) Nonconformity d) Heresy
44. One who believes in God. a) Devotee b) Theist c) Agnostic d) Believer
45. A person who can be cheated easily. a) Credulous b) Faithful c) Client d) Idiot
46. Animals and birds living in groups. a) Consolidated b) Gregarious c) Herd d) Cluster
47. A child nursed or brought up by one who is not its parent. b) Stepchild b) Foster c) Orphan d) Adopted
48. The act or practice of sleep walking. a) Narcotic b) Dreamer c) Somnambulism d) Fastidious
49. One who knows many languages. a) Linguist b) Stylist c) Polyglot d) Debator
50. The study of ancient writing. a) Paleography b) Philosophy c) Lexicography d) Calligraphy
Directions: In each of the following sentences one part is underlined. Which of the phrases a), b), c) given below each sentence should replace the underlined part? If the sentence is correct requiring no improvement choose d). (Q No. 51-60)
51. The magician confidently asked the crowd if they thought he was right and the crowd shouted that they did. a) that he did b) that he is c) that he was d) no correction needed
52. I asked him what is his name. a) what his name was b) what was his name c) what is your name d) no correction needed
53. Hardly he had arrived when the house caught fire. a) He had hardly arrived b) Hardly had he arrived c) Scarcely he had arrived d) No correction needed
54. Why we do not meet to discuss in detail next Friday? a) Why do we not b) Why we did not c) Why did we not d) No correction needed
55. The train will leave at 8.30 pm, we have been ready by 7.25 pm so that we can reach the station in time. a) were b) must be c) should have d) are
56. We must take it granted that Bina will not come for today’s class. a) taking it granted b) take it for granted c) took it as granted c) no correction needed
57. During his long discourse he did not touch that point. a) did not touch upon b) did not touch on c) did not touch of d) no correction needed
58. You have come here with a view to insult me. a) of insulting me b) for insulting me c) to insulting me d) no correction needed
59. He has not and can never be in the good books of his employer because he does not have honesty. a) has not and cannot be b) had not and can never be c) has not been and can never be d) no correction needed
60. This time my brother is coming to Guwahati from America for an extending stay. a) extensive b) extended c) extension d) no correction needed
Directions: In each of the following sentences certain parts have been underlined and marked a, b, c. There may be error in one of the underline parts. If there is no error choose d. (Q No 61-70)
61. There is no(a) objection to him joining(b) our party provided he is willing to fit(c) in with the party’s economic policy. d no error
62. Due to(a) the trucker’s strike, the vegetable vendors were doing(b) about half of the business thatthey were(c) doing before. d no error
63. My best friend(a) and advisor(b)have made(c) this useful suggestion. d no error
64. He did not(a) eat the mango because it tasted bitterly(b) and was slightly rotten(c). d no error
65. Of all(a) the friends I have had(b) he is the most helpful and less arrogant(c). d no error
66. He hesitated to accept(a) the post because he did not think the salary would not be enough(b) for a b a man with a family of ten(c). d no error
67. What makes matters(a) worse is that many a times(b) the public address is not clearly audible(c). d no error
68. If you will work hard(a) you will surely(b) get a seat(c) in any medical college in Assam. d no error
69. Soon after(a) their child was born he went off(b) leaving her in the lurch(c). d no error
70. The three last chapters(a) of this book are(b) very interesting(c). d no error
Directions: In the sentences given below some words or phrases are italicized. For each italicized part four words or phrases labelled a), b), c), d). Select the word nearest in meaning to the italicized part. (Q No. 71-75)
71. I wrote to him as lately as last week. a) immediately b) early c) recently d) late
72. Many of his friends avoid him because he is so garrulous. a) unreasonable b) quarrelsome c) talkative d) proud
73. Some people are extremely fastidious in their choice of dress. a) careless b) pompous c) fussy d) decent
74. The crowd was getting restive. a) restful b) tired c) excited d) restless
75. They are sure to steal a march upon their competitors. a) outshine b) defy c) challenge d) resist
Directions: In each sentence given below one part is italicized followed by a), b), c), d). From these choices choose the word or phrase which is opposite in meaning of the italicized word. (Q No. 76-80)
76. The refreshment we received at the end of the meeting was very frugal. a) lavish b) exorbitant c) wholesome d) light
77. The chairman rebuked the manager for not supervising the work of his juniors. a) praised b) criticized d) awarded d) dismissed.
78. The leader was pragmatic in his approach to the problems the country is facing. a) indefinite b) vague c) idealistic d) optimistic
79. Unsettled conditions in the land led to a steady exodus of people. a) invasion b) entry c) expulsion d) immigration
80. The drug will have pernicious effect on your health. a) beneficial b) ruinous c) prolonged d) quick
Directions: Fill in the blank in each sentence below with the most appropriate word/phrase from the four choices marked a), b), c), d). (81-90)
81. The child kept on crying while it ______. a) is bathed b) was being bathed c) was bathed d) is being bathed
82. Mr. Sharma has earned a lot of money and now he ______ his poor cousins. a) shows off b) looks upon c) looks down upon d) looks upto
83. ______ come to my rescue I would have been killed by the dacoits. a) If he did not b) Had he not c) Having not d) His having not
84. A ______ firms are having trouble with labour relations. a) considerable amount of b) great deal of c) large part of d) great many
85. You would have succeeded if you ______ upon my advice a) acted b) had acted c) have acted d) would have acted
86. Our life is such that if we wish to enjoy pleasures, we must also ______ pains. a) deny b) neglect c) ignore d) endure
87. They were not interested in ______ your problem. a) discussing about b) discussing c) discussing on d) discussing for
88. It is not possible for an ordinary mortal to ______ all these figures to memory. a) retain b) hoard c) keep d) commit
89. Do you remember ______ her at my house last year? a) of meeting b) having met c) to meet d) about meeting
90. He is so ______ of his own idea that he will not entertain any suggestion from others. a) enamoured b) hopeful c) jealous d) enchanted
Directions: Fill in each of the numbered blanks in the following passage with most suitable word from the choices given under the passage. (Q No 91-100)
The prices in the domestic __91__ continue to rule high in the __92__ year despite the expectation of a __93__ production as compared to the previous year. According to the preliminary assessment __94__ on the weather __95__ in recent months, tea output in 2016 may reach 1000 million kg as __96__ 950 million kg last year. During the past three months, tea prices have generally shown an __97__. Unlike last year, when tea prices rose dramatically, this year prices seem to have __98__ at a rather high level. In the subsequent four months, the __99__ average price showed a downtrend but in September, the prices have __100__ hardened to a considerable extent.
91. a) profit b) market c) circle d) sector
92. a) first b) current c) firstly d) last
93. a) large b) higher c) lower d) optimum
94. a) shared b) strategy c) carried d) based
95. a) outbreak b) conditions c) forecast d) pattern
96. a) per b) against c) compared d) above
97. a) uptrend b) upgrade c) reduction d) increment
98. a) increased b) surfaced c) stablised d) moderated
99. a) weekly b) monthly c) yearly d) daily
100. a) then b) than c) never d) again
PART B: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
Answer the following by marking the correct response from (a), (b), (c) and (d)
102. The Aligarh Movement wanted to (a) Revive Islam (b) Purify Islam (c) Partition India (d) Wage a religious war
103. Utilitarianism was a political philosophy attributed to (a) Jeremy Bentham (b) Lord Macaulay (c) Lord William Bentinck (d) Lord Ripon
104. Which one is an anti-cyclone? (a) Low pressure system with clockwise winds in the northern hemisphere (b) High pressure system with clockwise wind in the northern hemisphere (c) Low pressure system with clockwise winds in the southern hemisphere (d) High pressure system with clockwise wind in the southern hemisphere
105. Which is not a major port on the east coast? (a) Paradeep (b) Kolkata (c) Cochin (d) Vishakhapatnam
106. How far apart are rails in a broad gauge line system? (a) 1.676 metres (b) 1.576 metres (c) 1.845 metres (d) 1.453
107. When was the postal department set up in India? (a) 1837 (b) 1854 (c) 1911 (d) 1921
108. For how long can a member of the council of ministers in the state hold office without being a member of the state legislature? (a) One year (b) Nine months (c) Six months (d) Three months
109. The Constitution of India was enacted by a Constituent Assembly set up (a) Under the Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946 (b) Under the Indian Independence Act, 1947 (c) Through a resolution of the provisional government (d) By the Indian Congress
110. In which state was Panchayati Raj first introduced? (a) Gujarat (b) Andhra Pradesh (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Rajasthan
111 .The Ninth Schedule of the Indian Constitution (a) Formed part of the original constitution (b) Was added to the constitution by the First Amendment (c) Was added to the constitution by the 24th Amendment (d) Was added to the constitution by the 42nd Amendment
112 .The local MLAs and MPs are ex-offiicio members of? (a) Zilla Parishad (b) Panchayat Samiti (c) Panchayat (d) All these bodies
113. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) was established in the year (a) 1935 (b) 1947 (c) 1949 (d) 1951
114. A tax that takes away a higher proportion of one’s income as the income rises is termed as (a) Indirect tax (b) Proportional tax (c) Regressive tax (d) Progressive tax
115. Foot and mouth disease occurs in (a) cattle (b) cattle and sheep (c) cattle and pigs (d) cattle, sheep and pigs
116. The Prime Minister holds office (a) For a fixed term of five years (b) During the pleasure of the President (c) As long as he enjoys the confidence of the parliament (d) As long as he enjoys the confidence of the council of ministers
117. Who wrote a book describing the theory of economic drain of India during the British rule? (a) Dadabhai Naoroji (b) Lala Lajpat Rai (c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
118. What is meant by the ‘roaring forties’ (a) Tides around 40 degree (b) Seasonal winds over Australia (c) Westerlies between 40 and 60 degree latitudes North and south (d) A country with most people in the middle age group
119. The rocks in the Himalayan system are mainly (a) sedimentary (b) igneous (c) plutonic (d) none of these
120. Which of the following political party enjoys the distinction of having formed the first non-Congress Government in an Indian state? (a) DMK in Tamil Nadu (b) Akalis in Punjab (c) Communists in Kerala (d) Janata Party in Karnataka
121. Directive Principles in Indian Constitution are (a) Directives to the state to pursue a policy of non-alignment (b) Positive instructions to government to work for the attainment of set objectives (c) Negative injunctions to government to refrain from encroaching on the freedom of the people (d) Directives to the state to enhance the international prestige of the country
122. The President of India can declare national emergency (a) Only in the event of foreign attack (b) Only in the event of armed rebellion (c) Due to threat arising on account of foreign attack or armed rebellion (d) In none of these cases
123. Which President of India held office for two consecutive terms? (a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (b) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan (c) Dr. Zakir Hussain (d) Both (a) and (b)
124. Vinegar is acidic in nature due to the presence of (a) Citric acid (b) Sulphuric acid (c) Hydrochloric acid (d) Acetic acid
125. Farrel’s Law is concerned with the (a) Direction of winds (b) Velocity of winds (c) Intensity of waves (d) Thermal flow
126. The Noble Peace Prize 2015 was awarded to (a) Kailash Satyatarthi (b) Kailash Satyatarthi and Mallala jointly (c) National Dialogue Quartet (d) None of these
127. A gas which is not present in normal samples of air is (a) neon (b) chlorine (c) carbon dioxide (d) helium
128. What is incoming solar radiation known as? (a) radiation (b) refraction (c) insolation (d) reflection
129. The gland that contains the body’s thermostat is (a) pineal (b) pituitary (c) thyroid (d) hypothalamus
130. A catalyst is a substance which (a) Stops a chemical reaction (b) Helps initiate a reaction (c) Increases the speed of a reaction (d) Decreases the speed of a reaction
131. In which sequence did the Europeans arrive in India? (A) French (B) British (C) Portuguese (D) Dutch (a) CDBA (b) CADB (c) DCBA (d) BCDA
132. Who were the first kings to issue gold coins in India? (a) Mauryas (b) Indo-Greeks (c) Guptas (d) Kushans
133. Who is generally referred to as the ‘Grand Old man of India’? (a) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan (b) Jayaprakash Narayan (c) Lal Bahadur Shastri (d) Dadabhai Naoroji
134. The seats of power of the Holkar and Bhonsle were respectively at (a) Indore and Nagpur (b) Baroda and Nagpur (c) Baroda and Indore (d) Nagpur and Indore
135. India Divided was authored by (a) Firoz Shah Mehta (b) Rajendra Prasad (c) Vallabhbhai Patel (d) Lala Lajpat Rai
136. Hirakud multi-purpose project is on the river (a) Chambal (b) Godavari (c) Sutlej (d) Mahanadi
137. Who commented, “ The Cripps’ Mission was a post-dated cheque…”? (a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) Subhash Chandra Bose (d) Sardar Patel
138. An object weighs most in (a) air (b) water (c) hydrogen (d) vacuum
139. Raindrops are spherical due to (a) viscosity of water (b) surface tension (c) continuous evaporation (d) air friction
140. Which of the following is not included in Mughal paintings? (a) Islamic theology (b) Hunting scenes (c) Flowers and trees (d) Portraits
141. Which crop will be ideal in an area with annual rainfall of more than 200 cms and sloping hills? (a) Jute (b) Cotton (c) Maize (d) Tea
142. Which of the following classes participated the least in the Indian national Movement? (a) Capitalists (b) Princes of states (c) Government officials (d) Peasants
143. Proteins are made up from (a) sugars (b) fatty acids (c) amino acids (d) hydroxy acids
144. Match the following A. Chalukyas 1. Madurai B. Pallavas 2. Kanauj C. Harsha 3. Badami D. Pandyas 4. Kanchipuram A B C D (a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 4 3 2 1 (c) 1 4 2 3 (d) 1 3 2 4
145. Which of the following is not true about Reserve Bank of India (RBI)? (a) It regulates the currency and credit system of India (b) Foreign exchange reserves are kept by RBI (c) One rupee notes are issued by RBI (d) It formulates the monetary policy of India
146. The headquarters of Asian Development Bank is in (a) Tokyo (b) Singapore (c) Manila (d) Bangkok
147. Which of the following about the Football World Cup is incorrect? (a) The Football World Cup is organised by FIFA (b) The World Cup is called ‘Jules Rimet Cup’ (c) The first Football World Cup was organised in 1931 (d) The first Football World Cup was held in Uruguay
148. The 18th Asian Games will be held in (a) Jakarta (b) Colombo (c) South Korea (d) Kuala Lampur
149. Which of the following venues and years regarding Cricket World Cup is wrongly matched? (a) 1975 – England (b) 1979 – Australia (c) 1983 – England (d) 1987 – India
150. Find out the wrong match in the following newspapers and their country of publication (a) The Age – Australia (b) The Gazette – Canada (c) The Courier – United States of America (d) International Herald Tribune – France
The Test Series consist of Six Full-length Tests, will cover the entire Written Test syllabus of Office cum Field Assistant (OFA), and Part-A of Written Test syllabus of Assistant Account Officer (AAO), Light Vehicle Driver & Sahayak posts. This Test Series will act as a practice series and most importantly, will try to focus more on the areas which are important from exam point of view.
ProgramApproach
Total Six (6) tests
Each Tests100 MCQs (Objective Question) = Total 600 Questions
Each Test will have 20 MCQs from each sections of General English, General Knowledge, General Aptitude, Basic Computer knowledge & General Mathematics
Online Test links and PDF format of Test Question Paper will be mailed to registered emails.
Answers and Marks scored will be available immediately after the Online Test and PDF format of Answer Keys will be mailed after 3 days.
Tests extensively covering all the topics ofOffice cum Field Assistant (OFA), and Part-A of Assistant Account Officer (AAO), Light Vehicle Driver & Sahayak posts.
Aspirants can join any time and will be able to attempt all the previous tests.
Assam Power Distribution Company Limited, Assam Electricity Grid Corporation Limited and Assam Power Generation Corporation Limited invites applications for the recruitment of AAO, Office cum Field Asst, Light Vehicle Driver, Sahayak vacancies.
Vacancy Details
Sl No
Post Name
Total Posts
Qualification
Age Limit
1
Assistant Accounts Officer
60
Bachelor Degree in Arts, Science or Commerce with minimum 55% marks
Dept candidates/SC/ST – 50 % marks
21 to 44 years as on 01.01.2018.
2
Office cum Field Assistant
1000
Minimal HSSLC or equivalent examination
18 to 44 years as on 01.01.2018.
3
Light Vehicle Driver
25
HSLC or equivalent, at least 2 years professional driving licence
18 to 44 years as on 01.01.2018.
4
Sahayak
872
HSLC or equivalent with ITI in trade of Wireman/Electrician/Fitter/Welder/Machinist
18 to 44 years as on 01.01.2018.
Age Relaxation:
OBC/MOBC candidates, additional 3 years
SC/ST candidates, addtional 5 years
Departmental candidates, upper age limit is relaxed upto 45 years.
Remuneration
Appointed candidates would be paid initial consolidated pay (Scale + Grade pay) during their first year of the probation period of two years from the date of joining.
Name of the Post
Pay Band (Rs.)
Grade Pay (Rs.)
AAO (Assistant Accounts Officer)
16,800 – 60,500/-
8,700/-
Office cum Field Assistant
16,800 – 60,500/-
5,800/-
Light Vehicle Driver
12,400 – 47,400/-
5,500/-
Sahayak
12,400 – 47,400/-
4,500/-
How to Apply
Eligible and interested candidates are required to apply through online mode only in the “Career” section of APDCL website i.e., www.apdcl.org.
Online submission of the applications will be available on the website between 01-10-2018 to 31-10-2018
Application Fee
For General/OBC/MOBC candidate: Rs.500/-
For SC/ST candidates: Rs. 250/-
For PWD candidates: Nill
Important Dates
Date for Apply Online will Start Again: 01-10-2018 (Revised)
Written test – The candidates will have to appear in the written test to be notified in due course. The written test for all the posts mentioned above may be conducted on the same date.
The written test shall contain 1 (one) paper of 100 marks
Objective type with Multiple Choices
Paper total Time – 2 Hours
Posts
Papers - Syllabus
Marks
AAO (Assistant Accounts Officer)
Part-A: General English, General Knowledge, General Aptitude, Basic Computer knowledge & General Mathematics of Class-X standard.
50
Part-B: Accountancy/Statistics/Mathematics of degree level.
50
Office cum Field Assistant
General English, General Knowledge, General Aptitude, Basic Computer knowledge & General Mathematics of Class-X standard.
100
Light Vehicle Driver
Part-A: General English, General Knowledge, General Aptitude, General Mathematics of Class-X standard.
50
Part-B: Matters related to driving.
50
Sahayak
Part-A: General English, General Knowledge, General Aptitude & General Mathematics of Class-X standard.
The questions will be of Objective type with multiple choices.
Each question will carry 1 (one) mark for correct answer.
There will be negative marking of 0.25 (one fourth) marks for wrong answer against each question.
Calculator, Mobile phone and any other electronic gadgets will not be allowed inside the examination hall.
The candidates selected through written test will be called for Document Verification for the post of AAO (Assistant Accounts Officer), Office cum Field Assistant and Document verification / Physical Efficiency Test for the post of Sahayak.
The final selection list will be prepared based on the marks obtained in the written test only.
Candidates for the post of Sahayak who fails to qualify in the Physical Efficiency Test, will not be considered for final appointment.
In case of Light Vehicle Driver the candidates have to appear for a practical test in addition to a written examination which would be notified in due course.