AssamExam

APSC Prelim 2020 General Studies (GS) I Solved Question Paper & Answer Key

APSC CC (Prelim) Exam 2020 exam held on 12-09-2021 – General Studies -1 Question Paper is solved here. APSC Prelim 2020 GS-1 Question Paper (Download PDF)

 

SET-D

 

Q1. Which water resource project provides and extends benefits to Madhya
Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujarat, Rajasthan?
a. Hirakud Dam Project
b. Sardar Sarovar Dam Project
c. Bhakra-Nangal Dam Project
d. Tehri Dam Project

(B) Sardar Sarovar Dam Project

The Sardar Sarovar Dam is a concrete gravity dam built on the Narmada river in Navagam near Kevadiya, Narmada District , Gujarat in India. Four Indian states, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra and Rajasthan, receive water and electricity supply from the dam.

Difficulty Level: Moderate

Q2. Which pair of extremely located Indian cities is connected by the East-West
corridor?
a. SIlchar Porbandar
b. Mumbai Shillong
c. Nagpur Siliguri
d. Mumbai Kolkata

(A) Silchar – Porbandar

East-West Corridor is a 3,300 kilometres (2,100 mi) corridor via NH 27 (Porbandar–Rajkot-Samakhiali–Radhanpur–Kota–Jhansi–Kanpur-Lucknow–Ayodhya-Gorakhpur-Muzaffarpur–Darbhanga-Supaul-Purnia– Dalkhola-Kishanganj, Islampur–Sonapur- Ghoshpukur-Jalpaiguri Alipurduar- Bongaigaon – Nalbari Bijni–Guwahati–Nagaon–Dabaka–Silchar).

Difficulty Level: Easy

 

Q3. As per the 2011 census, how many gaon panchayats are there in Assam?
a. 2005
b. 2100
c. 2202
d. 2305

(C) 2202

Assam is administratively divided into 33 district with 80 sub-division, 219 Development Blocks and 2202 Gaon Panchayats, out of which 3 districts with 4 sub-divisions & 16 Development Blocks are under three hill districts of Karbi-Along, East Karbi-Along & Dima Hasao. Further, four district with eight sub-divisions are under Bodoland Territorial Council (BTC) area viz Kokrajhar, Chirang, Baska & Udalguri. The Brahmaputra valley consists of North Bank Plains Zone (NBPZ), Upper Brahmaputra valley Zone (UBVZ), Central Brahmaputra valley Zone (CBVZ) and Lower Brahmaputra Valley Zone (LBVZ), whereas the Barak Valley Zone mainly consists of plain area of three districts, viz. Cachar, Karimganj & Hailakandi.

Difficulty Level: Tough

 

Q4. Which among the following cities is known as the Tea City of India?
a. Darjeeling
b. Dibrugarh
c. Siliguri
d. Nainital

(B) Dibrugarh

Dibrugarh is the largest tea exporting town in India. Nestled on the banks of the river Brahmaputra, Dibrugarh is the entry point to the districts of Tinsukia, Dibrugarh and Jorhat which produce tea in abundance. Around 50% of the total tea produced in Assam come from these three districts. Dibrugarh is aptly called the ‘Tea City of India’. The town and its nearby places are a home to Oil and Timber industries. The aroma of the tea gardens and the mesmerizing views of the Himalayas make the town a must-see destination. Take a stroll in the tea gardens and sip one of the finest tea in the world. Take some packets of the tea back home. Every time you have this tea you will relive your memories of Dibrugarh. The town got its name from Dibarumukh. ‘Dibaru’ is the name of a river and ‘mukh’ means mouth.

Difficulty Level: Moderate

 

Q5. The term Black Revolution in the present context of India is associated
with

a. Higher exportability of crude oil
b. Self dependence in the production of crude oil
c. Improvement in the quality of black soil
d. Self dependence in milk production

(B) Self-dependence in the production of crude oil

Black Revolution: To increase petroleum production, the Government planned to accelerate the production of ethanol and to mix it up with petrol to produce biodiesel. Ethanol is a renewable source of energy and is a by-product of sugar production produced from molasses. The blending of ethanol with petrol has been practised in the USA and Brazil for over 70 years. The blending of ethanol with transport fuels would provide better returns to farmers, supplement scare resources of hydrocarbons and environment-friendly by reducing pollutants as it helps combustion.

Difficulty Level: Moderate

 

Q6. Lieutenant Commander Ms Karabi Gogoi is India’s first woman Navy
Officer to be posted as defence attache in a foreign country. What is her basic
expertise?
a. Submarine technology
b. Rafale fighter jet operations
c. Aeronautical training with reference to MIG-29
d. Warship construction and

(D) Warships constructing and maintenance .

LT-Commander Karabi Gogoi is the first woman naval officer to be appointed as a defence attache to Indian missions abroad. 

• She has been selected as an assistant defence attache at the Indian Embassy in Moscow.
• She is a naval engineer currently posted in Karwar Base in Coastal Karnataka.
• Gogoi specializes in constructing and maintaining warships.
• Gogoi is the third woman in the military to be appointed as a defence attache.
• Wing Commander Anjali Singh from Indian Air Force is the first woman officer to be appointed as a defence attache.

Difficulty Level: Tough

Our Opinion: Not a Grade 1 job standard question – Too specific about a personality in news (even if she is from Assam).

 

Q7. On 23rd of March 2019, the first Lokpal of India was appointed. Identify the
first Lokpal from the options below:
a. Dr. Soumya Swaminathan
b. Reena Saud
c. N.R. Modi
d. Pinaki Chandra Ghose

(D) Shri Pinaki Chandra Ghose

First Chairperson of the Lokpal is Shri Justice Pinaki Chandra Ghose, who is a former Judge of Supreme Court of India and was a sitting member of National Human Rights Commission.

Difficulty Level: Easy

(We updated his appointment in Current Affairs section of assamexam.com / fb page)

 

Q8. When was Assam detached from Bengal presidency and was made a
separate Chief Commisionership?
a. 1870
b. 1872
c. 1874
d. 1876

(C) 1874

In 1874, the Assam region was separated from the Bengal Presidency, Sylhet was added to it and its status was upgraded to a Chief Commissioner’s Province, also known as the ‘North-East Frontier‘ non-regulation province. The capital was at Shillong. Assamese, which had been replaced by Bengali as the official language in 1837, was reinstated alongside Bengali.

The new Commissionership included the four districts of Assam proper Nagaon, Darrang, Sibsagar and Lakhimpur), Khasi-Jaintia Hills, Garo Hills, Naga Hills, Goalpara, (Kamrup and Sylhet-Cachar of Bengal comprising about 54,100 sq miles. The people of Sylhet, Goalpara, Kamrup and the Hills protested the inclusion in Assam.

British Annexation of Assam (Assam History) – AssamExam

Difficulty Level: Easy

 

Q9. Which of the following Articles empower the Governor to appoint the
Chairman and other members of a State Public Service Commission?
a. Article 314
b. Article 315
c. Article 316
d. Article 317

(C) Article 316

Article 316 in The Constitution Of India: The Chairman and other members of a Public Service Commission shall be appointed, in the case of the Union Commission or a Joint Commission, by the President, and in the case of a State Commission, by the Governor of the State

About Assam Public Service Commission (APSC) – AssamExam

Difficulty Level: Moderate

 

Q10. Who was the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha of Indian Parliament?
a. Hukum Singh
b. K.S. Hegde
c. M.A. Ayyangar
d. G.V. Mavalankar

(D) G.V Mavalankar

Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar (27 November 1888 – 27 February 1956) popularly known as Dadasaheb was an independence activist, the President (from 1946 to 1947) of the Central Legislative Assembly, then Speaker of the Constituent Assembly of India, and later the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha, the lower house of the Parliament of India. His son Purushottam Mavalankar was later elected to the Lok Sabha twice from Gujarat.

Difficulty Level: Easy

Q11. Who was India’s Prime Minister when the government introduced the
modern Panchayati Raj system by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act
and gave it constitutional status?
a. P.V. Narasimha Rao
b. Vishwanath Pratap Singh
c. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
d. Chandra Shekhar

(A) P.V. Narasimha Rao

It was under P.V. Narasimha Rao that the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, better known as the Panchayati Raj Act, became effective.

Difficulty Level: Moderate

 

Q12. Which among the following schedules of Indian Constitution is related to
division of powers between Union and States?
a. Schedule VIII
b. Schedule VII
c. Schedule XI
d. Schedule XIVI

(B) Schedule VII

The Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India defines and specifies allocation of powers and functions between Union & States. It contains three lists; i.e. 1) Union List, 2) State List and 3) Concurrent List.[1] Originally there was 97 subjects in union list but now it is 100 subjects in union list. And in state list there was 66 subjects but now it is 61 subjects. And in concurrent list there was 47 subjects but now it iss 52 subjects in concurrent list.

Difficulty Level: Easy

 

Q13. The concepts of ‘Integral Humanism’ and ‘Antyodaya’ were associated with
which of the following visionary thinkers of India?
a. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee
b. Mahatma Gandhi
c. Deendayal Upadhyay
d. Atal Bihari Vajpayee

(C) Deendayal Upadhyaya

Integral humanism was a set of concepts drafted by Deendayal Upadhyaya as a political program and adopted in 1965 as the official doctrine of the Jan Sangh and later BJP.

Difficulty Level: Tough

 

Q14. When did the 1^st amendment of the Indian Constitution take place?
a. June 18, 1951
b. June 18, 1952
c. July 18, 1953
d. July 18, 1954

(A) 18 June 1951

The Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951, enacted in 1951, made several changes to the Fundamental Rights provisions of the Indian constitution. It provided means to restrict freedom of speech and expression, validation of zamindari abolition laws, and clarified that the right to equality does not bar the enactment of laws which provide “special consideration” for weaker sections of society.

The formal title of the amendment is the Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951. It was moved by the then Prime Minister of India, Jawaharlal Nehru, on 10 May 1951 and enacted by Parliament on 18 June 1951

Difficulty Level: Easy

 

Q15. Which freedom fighter earned the sobriquet ‘the Nightingale of India’?
a. Annie Besant
b. Pushpalata Das
c. Sarojini Naidu
d. Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit

(C) Sarojini Naidu

Difficulty Level: Easy

 

Q16. Under Art 368, the Parliament has no power to repeal fundamental rights
because they are
a. Integral part of basic structure of the constitution.
b. Integral part of human rights
c. Enshrined under Part III
d. All of the above

(A) Integral part of basic structure of the Constitution

In the landmark Kesavananda Bharati case (1973, while defining the concept of the basic structure doctrine, the SC held that although no part of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights, was beyond the Parliament’s amending power, the “basic structure of the Constitution could not be abrogated even by a constitutional amendment.”

Difficulty Level: Moderate

 

Q17. The concept of dual citizenship in the Union of India to the ‘Persons of Indian Origin’ belonging to some specific countries was recommended by
a. Ashok Mehta Committee
b. L.M. Singhvi Committee
c. Rajamannar Committee
d. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee

(B) L. M Singhvi Committee

Difficulty Level: Tough

 

Q18. Equal opportunity in matters of employment is guaranteed under
Article
a. 14
b. 15
c. 16
d. 17

(C) Article 16

Article 16 is provided to all citizens of the country. Article 16 covers the following aspects:-

• There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the state.

• No discrimination on basis of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, residence or any of them in respect of office/employment under the state.

• Parliament can make laws in regard to class/classes of employment or appointment of office prior to such employment or appointment.

• State can make provision for reservation of appointment or post in favour of any backward class.

• State can also do a reservation for promotion and consequential seniority of SC, STs.

• State can make the separate classes of vacancies from the unfilled vacancies of year for determining the ceiling of 50% of reservation on total vacancy.

Difficulty Level: Easy

 

Q19. Which of the following Fundamental Rights are available only to citizens of India?
1. Right to equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
2. Equality before Law
3. Right to freedom of religion
4. Right to freedom under Article 19
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 1 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 2 and 4

(B) 1 and 4

Fundamental rights available to both citizens and foreigners except enemy aliens

• Article 14 – Equality before the law and equal protection of laws.
• Article 20 – Protection in respect of conviction for offences.
• Article 21 – Protection of life and personal liberty.
• Article 21A – Right to elementary education.
• Article 22 – Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases.
• Article 23 – Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour.
• Article 24 – Prohibition of employment of children in factories etc.
• Article 25 – Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion.
• Article 26 – Freedom to manage religious affairs.
• Article 27 – Freedom from payment of taxes for promotion of any religion.
• Article 28 – Freedom from attending religious instruction or worship in certain educational institutions.

Fundamental Rights Available Only to Citizens of India

• Article 15 – Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
• Article 16 – Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
• Article 19 – Protection of six rights related to freedom – (a) of speech and expression; (b) to assemble peaceably and without arms; (c) to form associations or unions; (d) to move freely throughout the territory of India; (e) to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India; and (f) to practice any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.
• Article 29 – Protection of language, script and culture of minorities.
• Article 30 – Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions.

Fundamental Rights (Articles 12-35) – Polity Notes for APSC – AssamExam

Difficulty Level: Moderate

Source of Answer https://www.mea.gov.in/Images/pdf1/Part3.pdf The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.   https://nios.ac.in/media/documents/secsocscicour/english/lesson-16.pdf Page 35. 16.2.4 Right to Freedom of Religion As you know, one of the objectives declared in the Preamble is “to secure to all its citizens liberty of belief, faith and worship”. Since India is a multi-religion country, where Hindus, Muslims, Sikhs, Christians and many other communities live together, the Constitution declares India as a ‘secular state’. It means that Indian State has no religion of its own. But it allows full freedom to all the citizens to have faith in any religion and to worship, the way they like. But this should not interfere with the religious beliefs and ways of worship of other fellow beings. This freedom is available to the foreigners as well.

Q20. In the Indian Constitution, the method of election of the President is taken
from which country?
a. Ireland
b. England
c. USA
d. Australia

(A) Ireland

List of Borrowed Features of Indian Constitution – Polity Notes for APSC Exam – AssamExam

Difficulty Level: Moderate

 

Q21. As per the tripartite Assam Accord signed among GoI, Assam Govt and
leaders of Assam agitation on 15^th August 1985, what was set up as the
cutoff date for detection and deportation of illegal migrants in Assam?
a. 1st January 1951
b. 15th August 1967
c. 26th January 1970
d. 24th March 1971

(D) 24^th March, 1971

Assam Accord (1985) – Assam Polity Notes – AssamExam

Difficulty Level: Easy

 

Q22. The four districts under the Bodoland Territorial Council (BTC) are
a. Kokrajhar, Barpeta, Chirang and Baksa
b. Kokrajhar, Baksa, Chirang and Udalguri
c. Kokrajhar, Baksa, Sonitpur and Udalguri
d. Baksa, Chirang, Udalguri and Nalbari

(B) Kokrajhar, Baksa, Chirang and Udalguri

The BTC consists of four contiguous districts — Kokrajhar, Baksa, Udalguri and Chirang — carved out of seven existing districts — Kokrajhar, Bongaigaon, Barpeta, Nalbari, Kamrup, Darrang and Sonitpur — an area of 8970 km2 comprising various protected tribal belts and blocks in Assam. Its establishment was under theass Amended Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India.

Difficulty Level: Easy

 

Q23. Which statement among the following is not true about GST council?
a. It is a statutory body
b. It is chaired by the PM of the country
c. It decides the rates of taxes on goods and services except some items
d. It was constituted by the President of India

(B) is not true

Union Finance Minister is the Chairman of the GST Council

Difficulty Level: Easy

In true sense, this Question is wrong. GST Council is a constitutional body under Article 279A. It makes recommendations to the Union and State Government on issues related to Goods and Service Tax and was introduced by the Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016. The GST Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister and other members are the Union State Minister of Revenue or Finance and Ministers in-charge of Finance or Taxation of all the States. Thus, both the option (A) and (B) are incorrect. But, if you have to choose one out of these, then its’ option (B).

 

Q24. The National Bamboo Mission strives to

(i) Increase the area under bamboo plantation in non-forest areas.
(ii) Rejuvenate the underdeveloped bamboo industry in India
(iii) Take over the sick paper mills in the country
(iv) Explore the export market for bamboo

a. (i) and (ii)
b. (i) and (iii)
c. (i), (ii) and (iii)
d. (i), (ii) and (iv)

(A) (i) and (ii)

OBJECTIVEs of National Bamboo Mission

1. To increase the area under bamboo plantation in non forest Government and private lands to supplement farm income and contribute towards resilience to climate change as well as availability of quality raw material requirement of industries. The bamboo plantations will be promoted predominantly in farmers’ fields, homesteads, community lands, arable wastelands, and along irrigation canals, water bodies etc.

2. To improve post-harvest management through establishment of innovative primary processing units near the source of production, primary treatment and seasoning plants, preservation technologies and market infrastructure.

3. To promote product development keeping in view market demand, by assisting R&D, entrepreneurship & business models at micro, small and medium levels and feed bigger industry.

4. To rejuvenate the under developed bamboo industry in India.

5. To promote skill development, capacity building, awareness generation for development of bamboo sector from production to market demand.

6. To realign efforts so as to reduce dependency on import of bamboo and bamboo products by way of improved productivity and suitability of domestic raw material for industry, so as to enhance income of the primary producers.

Objective (nbm.nic.in)

Difficulty Level: Tough

 

Q25. Which one of the following correctly describes Angel Tax
a. A tax imposed on the super-rich people
b. A tax relief for doing social work
c. A type of capital gains tax imposed when startups receive funding, which is higher than the fair market value of shares sold.
d. A tax relief given to startups for doing innovative work

(C) Angel Tax is a term basically used to refer to the income tax payable on the capital raised by unlisted companies via the issue of shares through off-market transactions. Angel tax is levied on the capital raised via the issue of shares by unlisted companies from an Indian investor if the share price of issued shares is seen in excess of the fair market value of the company. The excess realization is considered as income and therefore, taxed accordingly.

Difficulty Level: Moderate

 

Q26. Name the Indian citize,n who is also a Nobel laureate in Economics
a. Abhijit Bannerjee
b. Amartya Sen
c. Jagdish Bhagawati
d. Har Gobind Khurana

(B) Amartya Sen

Abhijit Banerjee is American citizen.

Difficulty Level: Easy

 

Q27. Under which scheme given below, a programme has been launched by Govt
of India to train youths on GST and related matters?
a. Digital India Initiative
b. INSPIRE Programme
c. National Social Assistance Scheme
d. PMKVY

(D) Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY)

Skill India’s certified professionals to help GST implementation; Launches a 100- hour course under Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY)

Difficulty Level: Tough

 

Q28. The 7 member committee for revitalisation of Assam economy in the
aftermath of COVID-19 pandemic was headed by
a. M.P Bezbaruah
b. Subhash Chandra Das
c. Jayanta Madhav
d. Bhaskar Baruah

(B) Shri Subhash Chandra Das

Advisory Committee for revitalization of economy of Assam

• The Advisory Committee for revitalization of economy of Assam in the backdrop of the situation arising out of COVID-19 pandemic and consequent lockdown submitted its report to Chief Minister Sarbananda Sonowal.

• The Advisory Committee with seven members, headed by retired IAS officer Subash Chandra Das, assessed the macro-economic and socio-economic impact as well as sector specific impact of COVID-19.

• The committee made the sector specific recommendations on agriculture and allied sector, industries, trade and commerce, transport, tourism and hospitality, construction sector, employment including migrant labours.

• The committee observed that as the economy needs to be made fully functional gradually, standard operating protocols, rules and guidelines need to be made for the sectors which are still closed with special emphasis on the opening of tourism and hospitality industry including hotels, restaurants with other personal care services and industries.

https://www.assamexam.com/assam-current-affairs-june-01-07-2020/

Difficulty Level: Tough

 

Q29. We often hear the term ‘CTC’ in the context of Assam Tea. What does CTC
stand for?
a. Crush, Tear, Curl
b. Curl, Tear, Crush
c. Check, thrash, curl
d. Check, tear, curl

(A) Crush, tear, curl

Crush, tear, curl is a method of processing black tea in which the leaves are passed through a series of cylindrical rollers with hundreds of sharp teeth that crush, tear, and curl the tea into small, hard pellets. This replaces the final stage of orthodox tea manufacture, in which the leaves are rolled into strips. Tea produced using this method is generally called CTC tea or mamri tea.

The first CTC machine was brought into service in 1930 at the Amgoorie Tea Garden in Assam under the supervision of Sir William McKercher.

Difficulty Level: Easy

 

Q30. The Department of Act East Policy Affairs under the government of Assam
was set up in
a. 2012
b. 2015
c. 2017
d. 2020

(C) The Department of Act East Policy Affairs (AEPA) of the Assam Government has been set up in 2017.

Difficulty Level: Tough

Q31. Which ministry is carrying special scientific schemes like KIRAN IPR and
Vigyan Jyoti for women scientists of India?
a. The Ministry of Women and Child Development
b. The Ministry of Science and Technology
c. The Ministry of Human Resource Development
d. The Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship

(B) Ministry of Science and Technology

DST support empowering women scientists | Department Of Science & Technology

Difficulty Level: Tough (But answer is given in the question itselt)

 

Q32. Which of the following became the first state/UT in India to present an
e-budget and stream it live on social media as well?
a. Andhra Pradesh
b. Kerala
c. Assam
d. Delhi

(C) Assam

Andhra Pradesh is the first state to present its budget in the digital format in 2016. However, Assam is the first state to present e-budget and stream it live on social media.

Assam Budget 2018-19 – Highlights and Analysis – AssamExam

Difficulty Level: Moderate

 

Q33. The maximum number of individuals that can be supported by a given
environment is called
a. Carrying capacity
b. Population size
c. Biotic potential
d. Environment Resistance

(A) Carrying capacity

The carrying capacity of an environment is the maximum population size of a biological species that can be sustained by that specific environment, given the food, habitat, water, and other resources available. The carrying capacity is defined as the environment’s maximal load, which in population ecology corresponds to the population equilibrium, when the number of deaths in a population equals the number of births (as well as immigration and emigration).

Difficulty Level: Easy

 

Q34. Plants growing under direct sunlight are known as heliophytes. What do we
call plants growing under shades?
a. Psammophytes
b. Sciophytes
c. Monocots
d. Dicots

(B) Sciophytes

Sciophytes are plants that last or thrive best at low light intensity. These plants have larger photosynthetic units than solar plants or heliophytes.

Sciophytes are shade-loving trees and plants. These plants have larger photosynthetic units than solar plants or heliophytes. Sciophytes are also known as photophobic plants and reach their saturation level in only 20% sunlight.

Shade-plants essentially follow strategies for the optimum use of available energy and energy conservation.

Difficulty Level: Moderate

 

Q35. Which among the following protocols/conventions is dedicated for
protecting biodiversity from potential risks caused by Living Modified
Organisms?
a. Cartagena Protocol
b. Nagoya Protocol
c. Bonn Convention
d. Vienna Convention

(A) Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety.

The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety is a legally binding global protocol that seeks to contribute to ensuring the safe transfer, handling and use of living modified organisms (LMOs) created through modern biotechnology.

Difficulty Level: Easy

 

Q36. Which among the following types is a non-material pollution?
a. Air pollution
b. Water pollution
c. Thermal pollution
d. Soil pollution

(C) Thermal Pollution.

The Non-material Pollutions are of following types:
(i) Radiation Pollution.
(ii) Noise Pollution.
(iii) Thermal Pollution.

Difficulty Level: Moderate

 

Q37. The two UNESCO World Heritage sites in Assam are
a. Nameri National Park and Dibru-Saikhowa National Park
b. Kaziranga National Park and Manas National Park
c. Rajiv Gandhi Orang National Park and Hollongabar Gibbon WLS
d. Deepor Beel WLS and Dibru-Saikhowa National park

(B) Kaziranga NP and Manas NP

UNESCO World Heritage Sites in India

• India now has 35 sites, including 27 cultural properties, seven natural sites and one mixed site, notified as World Heritage Sites.

UNESCO World Heritage Natural Sites in India

28.	Kaziranga National Park (1985)	Assam
29	Manas Wild Life Sanctuary (1985)	Assam
30.	Keoladeo National Park (1985)	Rajasthan
31.	Sunderban National Park (1987)	West Bengal
32.	Nanda Devi  and Valley of Flowers National Parks (1988, 2005)	Uttarakhand
33.	Western Ghats (2012)	Karnataka, Kerala, Maharashtra,Tamil Nadu
34.	Great Himalayan National Park (2014)	Himachal Pradesh
35.	Khangchendzonga National Park (KNP) (2016)* [Mixed site]	Sikkim

UNESCO’s World Heritage Sites in India – AssamExam

Difficulty Level: Easy

 

Q38. Match the following persons and their activities in the field of environmental
conservation and development:
List 1:                           List 2
a. Medha Patkar         1. Centre for Science and Environment
b. M.S Swaminathan  2. Narmada Bachao Andolan
c. Anil Agarwal            3. Ornithology and Conservation
d. Salim Ali                  4. Rice Research and Biodiversity conservation.

A. a:2, b:4, c:1, d:3
B. a:2, b:1, c:3, d:4
C. a:2, b:4, c:3, d:1
D. a:3, b:1, c:4, d:2

(A) a 2, b 4, c 1, d 3

• Medha Patkar, (born December 1, 1954, Bombay [now Mumbai], Maharashtra state, India), Indian social activist known chiefly for her work with people displaced by the Narmada Valley Development Project (NVDP), a large-scale plan to dam the Narmada River and its tributaries in the Indian states of Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, and Maharashtra.

• Founder Anil Agarwal – Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) is a not-for-profit public interest research and advocacy organisation based in New Delhi, India. Established in 1980, CSE works as a think tank on environment-development issues in India, poor planning, climate shifts devastating India’s Sundarbans and advocates for policy changes and better implementation of the already existing policies.

• Mankombu Sambasivan Swaminathan (born 7 August 1925) is an Indian geneticist and administrator, known for his role in India’s Green Revolution. Swaminathan has been called the Father of Green Revolution in India for his role in introducing and further developing high-yielding varieties of wheat in India. He is the founder of the MS Swaminathan Research Foundation.

• Sálim Moizuddin Abdul Ali was an Indian ornithologist and naturalist. Sometimes referred to as the “Birdman of India”.

Difficulty Level: Easy

 

Q39. All species of Lemur are endemic to
a. New Caledonia
b. Seychelles Islands
c. Galapagos Islands
d. Madagascar

(D) Madagascar

Lemurs are mammals of the order Primates, divided into 8 families and consisting of 15 genera and around 100 existing species. They are native only to the island of Madagascar.

Difficulty Level: Tough

 

Q40. Which among the following tree is the state tree of Assam?
a. Titachapa
b. Nahor
c. Hollong
d. Segun

(C) Hollong (Dipterocarpus macrocarpus)

State Symbols of Assam (Assam Art & Culture APSC Notes) – AssamExam

Difficulty Level: Easy

Q41. Among the marine ecosystems, the most species rich ecosystem is
a. Mangrove
b. Coral Reefs
c. Open Water
d. None of the Above

(B) Coral reefs

Difficulty Level: Moderate

 

Q42. Biodiversity hotspots are among the richest and the most important
ecosystems in the world. How many such hotspots are present in the world?
a. 25
b. 34
c. 36
d. 42

(C) 36

• A biodiversity hotspot is a biogeographic region with significant levels of biodiversity that is threatened by human habitation.

• To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot on Myers 2000 edition of the hotspot-map, a region must meet two strict criteria: it must contain at least 0.5% or 1,500 species of vascular plants as endemics, and it has to have lost at least 75% of its primary vegetation.[6] Around the world, 36 areas qualify under this definition.

Difficulty Level: Moderate

 

Q43. Wooden Doors often swell up and get stuck during rainy season. This is due to the phenomenon of
a. Endosmosis
b. Imbibition
c. Endocytosis
d. Capillarity

(B) Imbibition

The swelling of wooden doors is caused by the process of imbibition. Imbibition is the absorption of water by solid particles of a substance without forming a solution.

Difficulty Level: Tough

 

Q44. Who won the Nobel Prize in Physics for the discovery of the law of
photoelectric effect?
a. Wilhelm Roentgen
b. Albert Einstein
c. Issac Newton
d. Ernest Rutherford

(B) Albert Einstein

The Nobel Prize in Physics 1921 was awarded to Albert Einstein “for his services to Theoretical Physics, and especially for his discovery of the law of the photoelectric effect.”

Difficulty Level: Moderate

 

Q45. The filament string of an electric bulb is made up of
a. Copper
b. Silver
c. Platinum
d. Tungsten

(D) Tungsten

Tungsten is a metal with a high resistivity. Tungsten has a high melting point, making it ideal for light bulbs. Tungsten is used to make the filament of an electric bulb because it has the highest melting point, lowest vapour pressure, and greatest tensile strength of any metal.

Difficulty Level: Easy

Q46.Which of the following is the chief constituent of biogas?
a. Carbon Dioxide
b. Hydrogen
c. Ethane
d. Methane

(D) Methane

Typical composition of biogas

Compound	Formula	Percentage by volume
Methane	CH 4	50–75
Carbon dioxide	CO 2	25–50
Nitrogen	N 2	0–10
Hydrogen	H 2	0–1
Hydrogen sulfide	H 2S	0.1 –0.5
Oxygen	O 2	0–0.5

Difficulty Level: Easy

 

Q47. Which of the following is an egg laying mammal?
a. Platypus
b. Bat
c. Whale
d. Seal

(A) Platypus

The Extant Species of Egg-laying Mammals Are:

• The Duck-Billed Platypus. Ornithorhynchus anatinus is a bizarre-looking animal that’s found in streams with banks suitable for burrowing. They are sleek and brown, with a beaver-like flat tail. Their face has a large, duck-like bill. The males have venomous spurs on their rear ankles. This species eats bottom-dwelling invertebrates such as crabs. They live in eastern Australia, including Tasmania.

• The Short-Beaked Echidna. Tachyglossus aculeatus is a widespread animal that’s found across Australia and into New Guinea. They are spikey and have powerful front limbs made for burrowing. These echidnas eat insects and hibernate through the winter.

• The Eastern Long-Beaked Echidna. Zaglossus bartoni eats almost exclusively earthworms. They are also spined. They live in humid forests, especially above sea level, in New Guinea. There are four subspecies of eastern long-beaked echidna, primarily separated by geographic area.

• Sir David’s Long-Beaked Echidna. Zaglossus attenboroughi lives in the Cyclops mountains of New Guinea. These are the smallest of the Zaglossus genus. It is feared that this species is highly endangered or even extinct, as a specimen has not been collected since 1961. Interviews with locals in 2007 (and signs of digging) suggest that the species is still alive – but no scientists have seen one yet.

• Western Long-Beaked Echidna. Zaglossus bruijni is the largest extant monotreme, tipping the scales at 5 to 10kg. They prefer to live in alpine meadows and montane forests. They are considered critically endangered. They live in New Guinea.

Difficulty Level: Easy

 

Q48. Which of the following diseases is not
caused by a virus?
a. Influenza
b. Anthrax
c. AIDS
d. Dengue

(B) Anthrax

Anthrax is a serious infectious disease caused by gram-positive, rod-shaped bacteria known as Bacillus anthracis.

Difficulty Level: Moderate

 

Q49. A washing machine works on the principle of
a. Gravitation
b. Acceleration
c. Centrifugation
d. Linear Motion

(C) Centrifugation

The working principle of a washing machine is centrifugation. Centrifugation is a separation process which uses the action of centrifugal force to promote accelerated settling of particles in a solid-liquid mixture. The washing machine consists of centrifuge for this purpose.

Difficulty Level: Moderate

 

Q50. Raindrops are spherical in shape
because of
a. Viscosity
b. Velocity
c. Residual Pressure
d. Surface tension

(D) Surface tension

Raindrops start to form in a roughly spherical structure due to the surface tension of water. On smaller raindrops, the surface tension is stronger than in larger drops. The reason is the flow of air around the drop. As the raindrop falls, it loses that rounded shape.

Difficulty Level: Easy

 

Q51. Name the clinical procedure in which blood is transfused from recovered
COVID-19 patient to a COVID-19 affected patient in critical condition.
a. Dialysis therapy
b. Plasma therapy
c. Solidarity technique
d. Hydroxychloroquine administration

(B) Plasma therapy

Convalescent plasma therapy uses blood from people who’ve recovered from an illness to help others recover. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has given emergency authorization for convalescent plasma therapy with high antibody levels to treat COVID-19.

Difficulty Level: Easy

sun sun ke khaan phaak gaya hamara!!

 

Q52. A man suddenly encounters a tiger in the jungle, and his heartbeat goes up,
blood pressure increases and gets nervous. Which hormone is released more at this point in his body?
a. Thyroxine
b. Insulin
c. Adrenaline
d. Aldosterone

(C) Adrenaline

Adrenaline is also known as the “fight-or-flight hormone.” It’s released in response to a stressful, exciting, dangerous, or threatening situation. Adrenaline helps your body react more quickly. It makes the heart beat faster, increases blood flow to the brain and muscles, and stimulates the body to make sugar to use for fuel.

Difficulty Level: Easy

 

Q53. The PM of India kickstarted the largest vaccination drive in Indian history
against COVID-19 virus on
a. 14th Jan, 2021
b. 16th Jan, 2021
c. 18th Jan, 2021
d. 20th Jan, 2021

(B) 16 January, 2021

Difficulty Level: Tough
(Very hard to remember start date of any campaign/drive/scheme)

 

Q54. The biggest vaccine manufacturer, by volume, in the world is
a. Codagenix
b. SpyBiotech
c. Serum Institute of India
d. Novavax

(C) Serum Institute of India (SII)

Serum Institute of India (SII) is an Indian biotechnology and biopharmaceuticals company. It is the world’s largest manufacturer of vaccines located in the city of Pune, India and was founded by Cyrus Poonawalla in 1966.

Difficulty Level: Easy (through recent news)

 

Q55. Which city has been conferred the Swachh Survekshan, 2020 award as the
cleanest city in the NorthEast Region and the State under Swachh Bharat Abhiyan?
a. Sivasagar
b. Jorhat
c. Tezpur
d. Lakhimpur

(B) Jorhat

Jorhat has won the Swachh Survekshan 2020 award for the cleanest city in the NE region in the 50,000-1 lakh population category.

Assam Current Affairs – August 22-28, 2020 – AssamExam

Difficulty Level: Moderate

 

Q56. Which country on 19th July, 2020 launched its first mission to the Mars?
a. India
b. Malaysia
c. UAE
d. Iran

(C) United Arab Emirates

The United Arab Emirates’ historic first mission to Mars is under way, after a successful lift-off in Japan. The Hope probe launched on an H2-A rocket from Tanegashima spaceport, and is now on a 500-million-km journey to study the planet’s weather and climate.

Difficulty Level: Easy

 

Q57. The much-discussed Line of Actual Control is a disputed borderline
between
a. India and China
b. China and Pakistan
c. India and Pakistan
d. China and Nepal

(A) India and China

Difficulty Level: Easy (comes in news every now and then)

 

Q58. The Paris Agreement of the UNFCCC is to limit the global warming well below
a. 1 degree celsius
b. 2 degree celsius
c. 2.5 degree celsius
d. 3 degree celsius

(B) 2 ^oC degree

The Paris Agreement is a legally binding international treaty on climate change. It was adopted by 196 Parties at COP 21 in Paris, on 12 December 2015 and entered into force on 4 November 2016. Its goal is to limit global warming to well below 2, preferably to 1.5 degrees Celsius, compared to pre-industrial levels.

Difficulty Level: Easy

 

Q59. Against 232 electoral votes won by Donald Trump, how many electoral
votes were bagged by Joe Biden in the November 2020 US elections.
a. 300
b. 306
c. 310
d. 315

(B) 306 votes

Presidential Election Results: Biden Wins

• Joseph R. Biden Jr. was elected the 46th president of the United States. Mr. Biden defeated President Trump after winning Pennsylvania, which put his total of Electoral College votes above the 270 he needed to clinch the presidency.
• 306 votes for Joseph R. Biden Jr.
• 232 votes for Donald J. Trump

Really? It’s a APSC Prelims Qs!

Difficulty Level: Tough

Q60. The Nobel Prize in literature for the year 2020 was won by
a. Louise Gluck
b. Peter Handke
c. Alice Munro
d. Kazuo Ishiguro

(A) Louise Gluck

2020 Nobel Prizes in Literature

American poet Louise Gluck has been awarded the 2020 Nobel Prize in Literature. The 10 million Swedish crown ($1.1m) prize is named after dynamite inventor and businessman Alfred Nobel and has been awarded since 1901 for achievements in science, literature and peace in accordance with his will. The Swedish Academy said Gluck was honoured “for her unmistakable poetic voice that with austere beauty makes individual existence universal”. Gluck previously won the Pulitzer Prize in 1993 for her collection The Wild Iris, and the National Book Award in 2014. A professor of English at Yale University, she “seeks the universal, and in this she takes inspiration from myths and classical motifs, present in most of her works”, the Academy said. It said her 2006 collection Averno was a “masterly” and “a visionary interpretation of the myth of Persephone’s descent into Hell in the captivity of Hades, the god of death”.

Nobel Prize Winners 2020 in Physics, Chemistry, Medicine, Economics, Peace and Literature – AssamExam

Difficulty Level: Easy

Q61. Sittwe Port in Myanmar which is being financed by India, is a part of which
project
a. Kaladan Multi-modal Transit Transport Project
b. Sagarmala Project
c. Prayagraj-Haldia Inland waterway project
d. Talcher-Dhamra Inland Waterway Project

(A) Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project

The Kaladan Road Project is a US$484 million project connecting the eastern Indian seaport of Kolkata with Sittwe seaport in Rakhine State, Myanmar by sea. In Myanmar, it will then link Sittwe seaport to Paletwa in Chin State via the Kaladan river boat route, and then from Paletwa by road to Mizoram state in Northeast India.

Assam Current Affairs – October 22-28, 2018 – AssamExam

Difficulty Level: Easy

 

Q62. On 26th January 2020, we lost an all-time great basketball player who
used to play for Los Angeles Lakers in the National Basketball Association for
two decades. Who was he?
a. Micheal Jordan
b. Kevin Durant
c. Shaquille o’Neal
d. Kobe Bryant

(D) Kobe Bryant

Difficulty Level: Tough

No comments about the Q selection, kiyahi kahe!

 

Q63. The FIFA World Cup 2022 will be hosted
by
a. Argentina
b. Russia
c. Qatar
d. Germany

(C) 2022 FIFA World Cup

It is scheduled to take place in Qatar from 21 November to 18 December 2022. This will be the first World Cup ever to be held in the Arab world, and it will be the second World Cup held entirely in Asia after the 2002 tournament in South Korea and Japan.

Difficulty Level: Easy

 

Q64. (B) Who among the following removed the pro-democracy books from its public libraries recently
a. China
b. Hong kong
c. Malaysia
d. Russia

(B) Hong Kong

Difficulty Level: Moderate

Poor Qs – It’s a news topic of any normal day.

 

Q65. On 25th May, 2020, a few officers of Minneapolis Police mercilessly killed a
black man who was charged of using counterfeit $20 note after buying
cigarettes from a convenience store. The name of this man, whose death
rocked the US political and social systems for a long time is
a. Mike Freeman
b. Thomas Lane
c. Derek Chauvin
d. George Floyd

(D) George Floyd

Difficulty Level: Easy

Poor Qs

 

Q66. The National Education Policy, 2020 was approved by the Union Cabinet on
29th July, 2020. The visionary policy that aims to touch upon every aspect
of education from elementary to higher education will replace the
a. National Curriculum Framework, 2005
b. National Policy on Education, 1968
c. National Policy on Education, 1986
d. None of the above

(C) National Policy on Education, 1986

Difficulty Level: Easy

 

Q67. On 9th November, 2019, the SC of India gave a verdict in the Ram
Janambhoomi- Babri Masjid case, popularly called the Ayodhya verdict. Which HC referred this case to SC after 2010?
a. Lucknow HC
b. Allahabad HC
c. Delhi HC
d. Patna HC

(B) Allahabad High Court

Difficulty Level: Easy

 

Q68. Three agricultural bills were signed by the President of India, after both
houses of the Parliament has earlier passed on 27th September 2020. Which of the following is not part of the package?
a. The Farmers Produce Trade and Commerce(Promotion and Facilitation) Act
b. The Farmers (Empowerment and Protection) Agreement on Price Assurance and Farm Subsidies Act
c. The Essential Commodities (Amendment) Act
d. The Farmers Subsidy and Insurance Act

(D) Farmers Subsidy and Insurance Act

The three bills, now Act, namely, the Farmers’ Produce Trade and Commerce (Promotion and Facilitation) Bill, 2020, Farmers (Empowerment and Protection) Agreement of Price Assurance, Farm Services Bill, 2020, and the Essential Commodities (Amendment) Bill, 2020 are meant to attract private investors and transform the deplorable state of Indian agriculture.

Difficulty Level: Moderate

Q69. The CBSE partnered with which company to launch a curriculum on
Digital Safety and Augmented Reality for students and educators?
a. Facebook
b. Google
c. Microsoft
d. Apple

(A) Facebook

The Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) and Facebook have partnered to launch curriculum on digital safety and online well-being and Augmented Reality for students and educators.

Difficulty Level: Moderate

 

Q70. Which tribe of Assam organised the ‘Judima Festival’ in the middle of December 2020 to promote its art and culture, performing arts and ethnic practices?
a. The Bodo tribe
b. The Dimasa tribe
c. The Karbi tribe
d. The Mising tribe

(B) Dimasa tribe

Haflong host the three-day ‘Judima Festival’ on sports and culture. The festival has been named after Judima, which is Dimasa tribals’ traditional brew. It is considered as one of the best traditional brews in the region and occupies an integral part of the social and cultural life of Dimasa tribals. The theme of the festival is to preserve, promote and nurture ethnic culture, music, dance, craft and folk art of Dimasa tribals residing in Dima Hasao district of Assam. The first edition of the festival, which was held in January 2016 saw the conglomeration of people of different ethnicities and strengthened the harmony among various tribes of the hill district. In addition, the initiative has been undertaken to promote tourism and establish Haflong into the tourism map of the Northeast.

Difficulty Level: Moderate

 

Q71. During 27th September 2020 and 10th November 2020, a fierce battle was
fought between two countries for the disputed territory of Nagorno-Karabakh. Which are these two countries?
a. Armenia-Iran
b. Armenia-Azerbaijan
c. Turkey-Iran
d. Azerbaijan-Russia

(B) Armenia and Azerbaijan

Nagorno-Karabakh conflict is an ethnic and territorial conflict between Armenia and Azerbaijan over the disputed region of Nagorno-Karabakh.

The 2020 Nagorno-Karabakh war was an armed conflict between Azerbaijan, supported by Turkey, and the self-proclaimed Republic of Artsakh together with Armenia, in the disputed region of Nagorno-Karabakh and surrounding territories.

Difficulty Level: Tough (These events doesn’t get coverage in Indian media)

 

Q72. For the first time in India, a senior defence personnel in the newly created
position of CDS was installed on 1^st January 2020, who will be above the three chiefs of the three wings. Who is the first incumbent in this position?
a. General Bipin Rawat
b. General Bikram Singh
c. General Manoj Naravane
d. Admiral Karambir Singh

(A) General Bipin Rawat

The Chief of Defence Staff of the Indian Armed Forces (CDS) is the head of the military staff of the Indian Armed Forces and the chief executive of the Department of Military Affairs. As the highest-ranking serving officer in the Indian Armed Forces, the CDS is the commanding officer and chairperson of the Joint Commanders and Staff Committee – making him the chief military adviser to the government of India and the Ministry of Defence. As the professional head of the armed forces, the Chief of Defence Staff is also aided by the newly formed office of Vice Chief of Defence Staff, the nation’s second highest ranking military officer, and the three chiefs of staff of the army, navy and air force, who are the leaders of each respective branch. The first and current CDS is General Bipin Rawat, who took office on 1 January 2020.

The CDS is a four-star officer selected from among the serving officers of the Indian Armed Forces. While being “first among equals” among the service chiefs, the CDS is a single-point military advisor to the defence minister.

Difficulty Level: Easy

 

Q73. During 1540 and 1587, King Naranarayana ruled over undivided Koch kingdom of Kamata and subsequently subjugated the entire Brahmaputra valley including the Ahom, Kachari, Tripura, Manipur kingdoms. What was the real name of King Naranarayana?
a. Nara Singh
b. Sukladhvaj
c. Malla Deb
d. Parikshit

(C) Malladev

Malladev ascended the throne in 1540, in the same year that his father had died, and acquired the title Narayan, which was to become the dynastic title of his succeeding kings. He issued coins, and his seal was made. He appointed his step-brother Chilarai (then known as Sukladhwaj) the yuvaraj and the commander-in-chief of the military.

Difficulty Level: Moderate

 

Q74. The founder of Ahom kingdom,
Chaolung Sukapha ruled Assam from
1228 to 1268. After his death, who
succeeded him?
a. Suteupha
b. Subinpha
c. Sukhangphaa
d. Sutupha

(A) Suteuphaa

Difficulty Level: Easy

 

Q75. As a great patron of Shakta Hinduism, an Ahom king built Umananda Temple on Peacock Island of Guwahati around 1694 AD. Who was he?
a. Siva Singha
b. Rudra Singha
c. Gadadhar Singha
d. Rajeswar SIngha

(C) Gadadhar Singha

Umananda Temple is a Shiva temple located at the Peacock Island in the middle of river Brahmaputra. It was built by the Ahom King Gadadhar Singha (1681–1696), who was a devout Shaivaite.

Difficulty Level: Easy

Q76. King Siva Singha entrusted Krishnaram Bhattacharya, a Shakta priest from
Nawadwip in West Bengal, to manage the Kamakhya Temple. How do we popularly know him?
a. Kamrupiya Gosain
b. Kamakhya Gosain
c. Parbatiya Gosain
d. Nawadwipor Gosain

(C) Parbatiya Gosain

Difficulty Level: Moderate

 

Q77. Chao Suhungmung was the first Ahom king to adopt a Hindu title, indicating a move towards inclusive polity. Which Hindu name did he take?
a. Swarganarayana
b. Durlavnarayana
c. Udyaditya Singha
d. Jayadhwaj Singha

(A) Swarganarayana

Suhungmung was the first Ahom king to adopt a Hindu title, Swarganarayana, indicating a move towards an inclusive polity; and Ahom kings came to be known as the Swargadeo which is the Assamese translation of Ahom word Chao-Pha. He is also called the Dihingia Raja, because he made Bakata on the Dihing River his capital.[2] Suhungmung was the last progenitor Ahom king (all subsequent kings were his descendants).

Difficulty Level: Easy

Q78. The best passing out cadet of the National Defence Academy Khadakvasla (Pune) is conferred with
a. Chatrapati Shivaji Gold Medal
b. Lachit Borphukan Gold Medal
c. Rani Laxmibai Gold Medal
d. President’s Gold Medal

(B) Lachit Borphukan Gold Medal (Best Cadet of NDA)

The best passing out cadet of National Defence Academy is conferred the Lachit Borphukan gold medal every year from 1999 The announcement of institution of the award by Indian Army chief General Malik on 25 April 1999 at the Delhi programme in presence of India’s vice-president and other dignitaries was the pivot to perpetuate the memory of Lachit Borphukan at the national level for the very first time. Battalion Cadet Adjutant Aaditya Udupa, 126th NDA Course,was awarded the medal for the Spring Term 2014 on 28 May 2014.

Best Qs in the whole paper. We really liked it.

Difficulty Level: Moderate

 

Q79. Who was the ruler of Kashmir at the time of India’s independence?
a. Farooq Abdullah
b. Sheikh Abdullah
c. Karan Singh
d. Hari Singh

(D) Hari Singh

Difficulty Level: Easy

 

Q80. The brave Assamese lady warrior Mula Gabharu died fighting against
a. Mir Jumla
b. Det Chung
c. Turbak Khan
d. Mirza Nathan

(C) Turbak Khan

Difficulty Level: Easy

 

Q81. Who was the first Assamese to fight the
British?
a. Kushal Konwar
b. Piyoli Phukan
c. Maniram Dewan
d. Gomdhar Konwar

(D) Gomdhar Konwar

In 1828, Gomdhar Konwar, a prince of the Ahom royal family, his colleague Dhanjay Borgohain and their followers rose in revolt against the British occupation of Assam.

By end of 1828 the process extension of British dominion into Assam was completed. With the assumption of the political power by the officers of the East India Company, the ruling Ahom monarchy lost not only their political authority but social privileges too. The feudal structure of the society began to crumble as new measures were adopted by the colonial rulers to strip the nobility of their rights and privileges. Supporters of monarchy began the organize themselves the restore the old Ahom monarchy and oust the British.

Gomdhar was formally enthroned near Jorhat according to Ahom rites, and arms and ammunitions were collected. But before he could make much headway a counter offensive was made by the British led by Lieutenant Rutherford. The rebels lost and Gomdhar fled to the Naga Hills. But, soon he and his associates were arrested by the British. Gomdhar was found guilty of “illegally assuming the Insignia of Royalty” and was sentenced to seven years of imprisonment in banishment and was deported to an unknown location to die in ignominy.

Difficulty Level: Easy

 

Q82. Bhogeswar Baruah was the first Arjuna Award winner from Assam in 1966. Who was the 2nd Assamese to win this coveted award of Indian sports in 1987?
a. Tayabun Nisha
b. Monalisa Baruah Mehta
c. Madalisa Hazarika
d. Toshen Bora

(B) Monalisa Baruah Mehta.

Five Arjuna Award winners from Assam

Arjuna Award is India’s second highest sporting honour. Started in 1961, the Arjuna Awards are given by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports to recognize outstanding achievement in sports. Since then five sports persons from Assam had been awarded with this prestigious award.

Bhogeswar Baruah

Bhogeswar Baruah is the first Arjuna Award winner from Assam. He received the prestigious award in 1966. He won gold medal in the 800 metres race at Bangkok Asian Games in 1966. Baruah’s birthday is celebrated on September 3 every year in Assam, called Abhiruchi Sports Day.

Monalisa Baruah Mehta.

Ace table tennis player Monalisa Baruah Mehta is the second Assamese to receive Arjuna Award. She received the prestigious award in 1987. Monalisa is married to ace table tennis player Kamalesh Mehta. Monalisa was the 12 time state champion and won the national table tennis championship eight times.

Jayanta Talukdar

Ace archer Jayanta Talukdar received the Arjuna Award in 2006. He is the third sports person from Assam, after Bhogeswar Baruah (1966) and Monalisa Barua Mehta (1987) to receive this prestigious award. Jayanta Talukdar made it to the Indian men’s recurve archers team for London Olympics 2012.

Shiva Thapa

World Championships bronze-medallist Shiva Thapa is the fourth Assamese player to receive the prestigious award in 2016. Thapa was the only boxer recommended in 2016 for Arjuna Award. Shiva Thapa participated in the 2012 London Olympics. He was the youngest Indian boxer to qualify for the Olympics.

Hima Das

India’s track queen Hima Das is the latest addition to the list of Arjuna awardees from Assam this year. She is the second athlete after Bhogeswar Baruah (1966) and fifth Assamese player to receive this award.

Difficulty Level: Moderate

Q83. Which Assamese film won the first-even National Film Award (the President’s Certificate of Merit) for regional language category in 1955?

1. Piyoli Phukan
2. Maniram Dewan
3. Indramalati
4. Ronga Police

(A) Piyoli Phukan

The 1955 Phani Sarma directorial film Piyali Phukan received the first Certificate of Merit.

The film is based on the life and struggle of a historical character of Assam, Piyoli Phukan, son of Badan Borphukan, who revolted against British occupation. He was sentenced to death and hanged in 1830 at Jorhat. The film is produced by Gama Prasad Agarwalla under the banner of Rupjyoti Production, Tezpur, Assam. Piyoli Phukan is the first Assamese film, which got national reorganization.

Film Ronga Police, directed by Nip Barua, became the first film to receive the president’s Silver Medal for Best Feature Film in Assamese.

Difficulty Level: Moderate

Q84. Great Footballer Talimeren Ao was born in undivided Assam (in Naga Hills
district), and went on to study at Cotton College and RG Kar Medical College for his degree in medicine. He holds an unique status in Indian football. What is that?
a. He scored the first goal for India in international matches.
b. He was the first captain of Indian football team in 1948 London Olympics.
c. He was the flag bearer of Indian contingent in 1948 London Olympics.
d. Both b and c

(D)

Talimeren Ao was an Indian footballer and physician. He is best known as the captain of Indian team in their first ever match. He was born on 28 January 1918 in the then Naga Hills District of Assam. He was a figurehead of India’s football history, and his name is resonant in the collective memory of the people.

Ao was the captain of the India national football team in the 1948 Summer Olympics, in the team’s first official game and was the flag-bearer of the Indian contingent.

Difficulty Level: Tough

Q85. Aximat Jar Xeral Xima is a landmark in Assamese Novel written by Kanchan
Baruah and was published in 1945. But Kanchan Baruah is the pen name. What is the author’s real name?

a. Brajamohan Sarma
b. Bhubanmohan Baruah
c. Medini Choudhury
d. None of them

(B) Bhubanmohan Baruah

Difficulty Level: Moderate

 

Q86. The Tale of Nomadic Soul is the English translation of a famous Novel by Syed Abdul Malik. Which is that novel among the following?
a. Parashmoni
b. Adharshila
c. Aghari Atmar Kahini
d. Ruptirthar Yatri

(C) Aghori Atmar Ka Hinee

The Tale of Nomadic Soul: Translated in English by R.P.Khaund from the Original Assamese Novel “Aghori Atmar Ka Hinee” by Malik Syed Abdul.

Difficulty Level: Moderate

 

Q87. The novel Abhijatri is based on the life and achievements of
a. Nalini Bala Devi
b. Aideu Handique
c. Chandraprabha Saikiani
d. Rajbala Handique

(C) Chandraprabha Saikiani

Difficulty Level: Moderate

 

Q88. The ‘English Education Act’ made English language the medium of instruction in India as per decision of William Bentinck, and funds were allocated to the British East India Company to spend on education and literature in India. When was the Act passed?
a. 1835
b. 1838
c. 1840
d. 1842

(A) 1835

The English Education Act 1835 was a legislative Act of the Council of India, gave effect to a decision in 1835 by Lord William Bentinck, then Governor-General of the British East India Company, to reallocate funds it was required by the British Parliament to spend on education and literature in India.

Difficulty Level: Easy

 

Q89. While Rabindranath Tagore conferred the title ‘Mahatma’ upon Gandhi, who
conferred the title of ‘Half-Naked Fakir’ on Gandhi?
a. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
b. Sir Winston Churchill
c. President Roosevelt
d. Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose

(B) Winston Churchill

Former British Prime Minister Winston Churchill once called Mahatma Gandhi “a seditious Middle Temple lawyer, now posing as a fakir… striding half-naked up the steps of the Viceregal Palace.” Churchill was unhappy at Gandhi’s participation at the Second Round Table Conference in London in 1931. Churchill even suggested Gandhi should be allowed to die if he goes on hunger strike.

Difficulty Level: Easy

 

Q90. Who authored the famous book, Indica?
a. Alexander Cunnigham
b. Fahien
c. Megasthenes
d. Pliny

(C) Megasthenes

Indica is an account of Mauryan India by the Greek writer Megasthenes. The original work is now lost, but its fragments have survived in later Greek and Latin works. The earliest of these works are those by Diodorus Siculus, Strabo (Geographica), Pliny, and Arrian (Indica).

Difficulty Level: Easy

 

Q91. Aruna Asaf Ali was one of the prominent organisers of the underground activities during the
a. Civil Disobedience Movement
b. Quit India Movement
c. Swadeshi Movement
d. Temple Entry Movement

(B) Quit India Movement. (Repeated Qs from 2016)

Aruna Asaf Ali was an Indian educator, political activist, and publisher. An active participant in the Indian independence movement, she is widely remembered for hoisting the Indian National flag at the Gowalia Tank maidan, Bombay during the Quit India Movement in 1942. Post-independence, she remained active in politics, becoming Delhi’s first Mayor.

APSC Prelim 2016 GS Paper – Solved Question Paper – AssamExam

Difficulty Level: Easy

 

Q92. Identify the national leader and efficient administrator who played an
extraordinary role in the integration of Indian states.
a. Chakravarti Rajagopalachari
b. Jawaharlal Nehru
c. Rajendra Prasad
d. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

(D) Vallabhbhai Jhaverbhai Patel

Vallabhbhai Jhaverbhai Patel served as the first Deputy Prime Minister of India. He was an Indian barrister, and a senior leader of the Indian National Congress who played a leading role in the country’s struggle for independence and guided its integration into a united, independent nation. He was one of the conservative members of the Indian National Congress. He acted as Home Minister during the political integration of India and the Indo-Pakistani War of 1947.

Difficulty Level: Easy

 

93. The largest landlocked country in the world is
a. Republic of Congo
b. Mongolia
c. Bolivia
d. Kazakhstan

(D) Kazakhstan

Kazakhstan is the world’s largest landlocked country. A landlocked country is a country that has no direct access to the ocean.

Difficulty Level: Easy

 

94. Find out which of the following pairs is/are correct:
1. Khamti: Arunachal Pradesh
2. Ao: Nagaland
3. Melacheri: Lakshadweep
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. 1 and 2
d. All are correct

(D) All of the above

Difficulty Level: Tough

 

95. Which country is the largest archipelago country in the world?
a. Philippines
b. Indonesia
c. Maldives
d. Malaysia

(B) Indonesia

Indonesia is made up of 17,508 islands of which about 6,000 islands inhabited by people. As the largest archipelago in the world, its territory covers an area of 1,919,440 square kilometers (735 355 square miles) and has one of the widest among the 16 countries in the world and is also the fourth most populous country with about 230 million inhabitants. The country has over 150 active volcanoes, including Krakatoa and Tambora.

Difficulty Level: Easy

 

96. Which of the following rivers has the largest river basin in the Indian subcontinent?
a. The Brahmaputra
b. The Indus
c. The Ganga
d. The Krishna

(C) Ganga

Source of Answer https://indiawris.gov.in/wiki/doku.php?id=indus_up_to_border The Indus basin extends over China (Tibet), India, Afghanistan and Pakistan draining an area of 11,65,500 Sq.km. https://bbmb.gov.in/indus-basin.htm Most of the Indus Basin lies in India and Pakistan, and only about 13 percent of its total catchment is in Tibet and Afghanistan. So, Indus basin within Indian subcontinent = 10,13,985 Sq.km. https://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/kegy103.pdf The Indus System is one of the largest river basins of the world, covering an area of 11,65,000 sq. km (in India it is 321, 289 sq. km and a total length of 2,880 km (in India 1,114 km). http://117.252.14.242/rbis/basin%20maps/ganga_about.htm https://indiawris.gov.in/wiki/doku.php?id=ganga The Ganga basin extends over an area of 10,86,000km2. The drainage area lying in India is 862,769 km2. 140,000 km2 (54,000 sq mi) in Nepal (13%), 46,000 km2 (18,000 sq mi) in Bangladesh (4%), and 33,000 km2 (13,000 sq mi) in China (3%) Source: International Watercourses Law for the 21st Century: The Case of the River Ganges Basin Front Cover Sūryaprasāda Suvedī, Surya P. Subedi So, Even if we deduct Basin area in China, 10,86,000-13000=10,73,000km2 in Indian subcontinent.

 

Difficulty Level: Moderate

 

97. The boundary demarcation between India and Pakistan came into force on
17th August 1947. Which line divides the two countries?
a. Durand Line
b. Radcliffe Line
c. McMohan Line
d. Gilbert Line

(B) Radcliffe Line

The boundary demarcation line between India and Pakistan known as the Radcliffe Line came into force on 17 August 1947. The Radcliffe line is spread through the Rann of Kutch in Gujarat to the international border in Jammu in Jammu & Kashmir, dividing India and Pakistan into two different countries.

Difficulty Level: Easy

 

98. The islands of Seychelles are located in the
a. Arctic Ocean
b. Atlantic Ocean
c. Indian Ocean
d. Pacific Ocean

(C) Indian Ocean

Seychelles is located in the Somali Sea segment of the Indian Ocean, northeast of Madagascar.

Difficulty Level: Moderate

 

99. Which of the following wildlife sanctuaries/National Parks is located in the Assam-Arunachal Pradesh borders?
a. Sonai Rupai Wildlife Sanctuary
b. Bornadi Wildlife Sanctuary
c. Dibru-Saikhowa NP
d. Namdapha NP

(A) Sonai Rupai Wildlife Sanctuary.

Sonai Rupai Wildlife Sanctuary is a protected area located in the state of Assam in India. This wildlife sanctuary covers 175 km2. It is located along the foothills of the Great Himalayan Range. The area was declared as a sanctuary in 1998.

Difficulty Level: Moderate

 

100. According to the most authentic geographical studies, when did life
begin on earth?
a. 4.2 million years ago
b. 4.6 billion years ago
c. 3.8 million years ago
d. 3.8 billion years ago

(D) 3.8 billion

Earth formed around 4.54 billion years ago. The earth’s oceans were formed within 500 million years from the formation of the earth. Sometime around 3,800 million years ago, life began to evolve.

Difficulty Level: Moderate

 

APSC Prelim 2020 GS-1 Question Paper (Download PDF)

Also see APSC Prelim 2020 – GSII Qs Paper – Solution & Answer Key

Disclaimer: Here, we have tried to provide the most correct answers, according to us. But, APSC is the final authority in this regards.